Comments by "eggynack" (@eggynack) on "TED-Ed" channel.

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  11. I don't need to prove that infinity is the only thing that has this property, primarily because it's irrelevant. For any sort of finite number, we can prove pretty easily that that sort of finite number changes when you add one to it. For any sort of infinite number, we can pretty easily prove that it doesn't change when you add one to it. For example, for any real number, adding one will change either the ones place, or, if the ones place and some quantity of other places greater than it have 9's, then the first non-9 will change. It's just how addition works. As for infinity being a number, again, not all that relevant. What matters is whether we can add to it, and, y'know, we can. It's not all that difficult. If you want to call it something besides a number, go right ahead, but we can still generally add or subtract with it. Not always, and I'll naturally fall into such a case in a moment, but we know what those cases are. This question is not one of proof but of definition. Define number, and if that definition fits infinity, then we call infinity a number, and otherwise we come up with a different name. That gets to your final post, where you assert that infinity minus infinity equals zero. It doesn't. Infinity minus infinity is an indeterminate, meaning it does not have any one value. In this particular case, that means it can take on any value (mostly, cause countable infinity is inevitably going to be something of a bound). You can put infinite guests into the hotel and get zero vacancies, or you can get exactly one vacancy, if you fill all but the first room, or you can get five vacancies, by skipping the first five rooms, or you can get infinite vacancies, by filling only even rooms, or you could get what we might call negative vacancies, by putting anywhere from two to infinite people in every room, or we could assign everyone infinite rooms, whatever you wanna call that.
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  28. Sure, we don't physically see infinite things, but that doesn't mean pondering infinity is useless. This scenario has some pretty direct extensions into mathematics, and math has tons of obvious applications. This is really just a restatement of the general notion of mapping a countably infinite set into itself, which is a pretty straightforward idea when all is said and done. As for whether calculus, and math in general, would be way different if we replaced infinity with massive numbers, the answer, straightforwardly, is yes. Not because we actually need that level of precision in order to have a workable model, but because infinity actually just makes things a lot easier. The derivative of x^2 is 2x. Super easy. Now, instead, imagine figuring out the slope by physically zooming in on that curve and taking measures of slopes that are progressively closer to the one you want to measure, until you get a level of approximation you're comfortable with. The result would be, like, incredibly close to 2x without actually being 2x, and you'd presumably have to determine a result whenever you want to figure out the answer at a different point. And that's one of the more straightforward applications of calculus. There's this weird misconception that calculus makes things harder (and, to be clear, calculus without the infinite really wouldn't be calculus in the first place), but what it really does is take the ostensibly discrete natural world and render it in a much easier to work with continuous way. A lot of things we do with infinity just aren't all that plausible without it.
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  34.  @sinisterministertv3622  There are more numbers in any interval of real numbers than there are natural numbers. The mode of proving this is Cantor's diagonal argument. First, you need some notion of size that extends to infinite sets. For this, we say that two sets are the same size if you can pair elements of the first set with elements of the second set on a one to one basis. So, {1,2,3} is the same size as {5, -1, pi}. Any pairing with the set {4, 5, 6, 7} would fail to account for at least one element of that set, so we say that this new set is bigger. Now compare, say, the set of naturals to the set of all integers. We may expect the integers to be larger, but this is mistaken. We can order the naturals straightforwardly as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5..., and the integers somewhat less straightforwardly as 0, 1, -1, 2, -2... and creating the mapping is as easy as pairing the first element of the first set with the first element of the second set, second element to second element, third element to third element, and so on. From this we may conclude, and correctly so, that creating an ordering of the elements of an infinite set is equivalent to showing this set is the same size as the naturals, and that the inability to do so means the set is bigger. So, can such a list be created for the real numbers between, say, 0 and 1? Assume, for the sake of argument, that we can. Let's write out such an arbitrary list: 1. .008123491... 2. .423419056... 3. .123412342... 4. .512512341... and so on. This list, by assumption, features every real number between zero and one. I will now generate a new number, and thus demonstrate the premise of the list's existence contradictory. Make a number where the first digit is equal to the first digit of the first number, the second digit is equal to the second digit of the second number, and so on. So, .0235... Now, change each digit. I'll add one to each, and 9's become 0's. So, .1346... This number cannot be on the original list. It can't be the first number, because the first digit is different. It can't be the second number, because the second digit is different. And so on. Any list will have this problem. Thus, this interval of reals is bigger than the naturals, and the same argument applies to any such interval. Infinity is weird. This video was about how sets with the same size can be mapped to each other, but, as you can see, it's not trivial to identify that the sets in question are the same size. The infinite buses are as big as the hotel, but this other set is bigger.
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  79. You kinda missed the point of a lot of what I said. To your first claim, do you agree that 1+1=2? If so, then proving that infinity+1=infinity would be sufficient to show that infinity is special in this regard. So, we'll start with the set of all positive integers, here assumed not to include zero. Then, we will compare it to the union of the set of positive integers with zero. To prove these sets have the same size, we need merely construct a mapping from one set to the other. The mapping in question will be to take each element from the positive integers plus zero and add one to it to get an element of the set of positive integers. So, 0 maps to 1, 1 maps to 2, 2 maps to 3, and so on. In this fashion, every single element from the first set is paired with exactly one element from the second set. However, the second set is the first set with one additional element, so we have taken the first infinity, added one to it, and reached an infinity of the same exact size. To your second claim, I think you've just straight up misread me. I didn't say that infinity is a number. I said that, whether infinity is a number or not, we can add to it. If your definition of number doesn't include infinity, then, well, I guess there's just another type of thing we can reasonably add numbers to. Who cares about the word "number" anyway? To the third, again, I have literally no idea where you're getting the idea that that's what I said. The hotel is not full with no one in the first room. What I said was that you can put infinite guests into the hotel and not necessarily fill it. You referred to putting infinite guests into the infinite hotel as subtracting infinity from infinity, but my point was that this subtraction has a ridiculous variety of results. You can take the same exact quantity of guests and reach a ton of different levels of hotel fullness.
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  182.  @JJokerMoreau  You are mistaken. I'll start with countable infinities. Far from impossible, this categorization deals with the fact that the elements of an infinite set can be ordered such that, starting from the first element, you can reach any given element in finitely many steps. The natural numbers are the canonical example of this. Given the ordering 1, 2, 3, 4..., name an element of the set that cannot be reached. This is, of course, only one of many functionally identical definitions. Perhaps the most classic is that the elements can be matched up one to one with the natural numbers. This is true of, for example, the integers. List the integers as 0, 1, -1, 2, -2, 3, -3... and the pairing is easy to construct. Just pair the first integer, 0, with the first natural, 1, the second integer, 1, with the first natural, 2, and so on. You may note how this definition ultimately works the same as the first, as the method of pairing can always be one of these orderings. From this, we can derive a notion of larger infinities. A larger infinite set is one that can't be ordered in this way. One that can't be paired with the naturals. The canonical example here is the real numbers. Any attempted pairing with the naturals will inevitably fail to account for not just a real number, but infinitely many real numbers. It is in this sense that larger infinities are possible. I'm not really sure what you mean by conceptually impossible. I've listed the concepts, and they operate in a way that doesn't contradict anything external to themselves, and in an internally consistent manner. These aren't games either. The natural numbers are obviously incredibly useful. The real numbers are both very useful, in a pragmatic sense, and a direct extension of those useful naturals.
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  195. First, we have to ask how to define one set as larger than another. If you have one set with three objects and one with four, how can you generally claim one set has more objects? One method is to take each object from one set and attempt to pair it with one object from another. If you are fundamentally incapable of doing this, then one of the sets, the one with unpaired objects, is larger. So, as an example, we can compare the set of natural numbers to the set of even numbers. Naturals have the immediate appearance of being larger, but if you take each one and multiply it by two, then you will have a perfect mapping from naturals to evens. The same is doable for integers, rationals, and even the algebraic numbers (numbers that can be represented through some finite algebraic expression, like root 2). So, can we map the naturals to the real numbers from zero to one? Let's assume we can, and specifically assume there exists some arbitrary mapping from the naturals to the reals. It'll look something like this. 1: .149874123... 2: .00129384123... 3: .123487102... 4: .981726418... ... In order for this to be a mapping, every real number from zero to one should be on the right side. But, as I will now prove, this is impossible. Draw a diagonal line through all those real numbers, such that it goes through the first digit of the first real, the second digit of the second real, the third digit of the third real, and so on. Now, take each digit that has a line through it, and construct a new number out of it. In this case, the first four digits would be .1037. Finally, increment each digit by one. Now we have a new number .2148... This number cannot be the first real on the list, because the first digit is different, it can't be the second real, because the second digit is different, it can't be the third real, because the third digit is different, and so on. The new number cannot be any number on the list, so the original list did not have all the reals from zero to one. And, in fact, it's possible to generate uncountably many numbers we missed through similar methods. Thus, this mapping, and because it was an arbitrary mapping, any mapping, does not work. This is what is meant by uncountable, that there is no possible mapping from the natural numbers.
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  234.  @koko10900  "Once claimed that you have an infinite amount of one substance, all of that substance is now in that infinity." Untrue. Consider that, if I have all the natural numbers, then I have an infinite amount of numbers. However, all of the substance that is numbers is not contained in that infinity. For example, -1 isn't contained in my set. Similarly, if we were to label every person in this imagined infinite person universe with an integer, and then had only the positive labeled people start out in the hotel, then that would leave infinitely many negative labeled guests. "And if it is the fact that the infinite hotel is filled by an infinite amount of people, there is really no point differentiating between the two entities. This is because, as soon as I've room seemingly becomes available, it has to be filled. Unless this is true, at one point in time it has to have been considered empty. If the pairing is instant in which this scenario would seem to suggest, room = guest, which makes them one entity because they are necessary for eachother in this scenario." Also not true. In fact, the whole point of the video is that it's not true (and the video is correct in this). There are many different mappings of guests to rooms. We can assign them in a way that fills the hotel very easily. Person one goes to room one, person two goes to room two, and so on. But we can also assign them in a way that leaves an empty room. Person one goes to room two, person two to room three, and so on. Or we can assign them in a way such that infinite rooms are empty. So one goes to two, two goes to three, three goes to five, and person n goes to the nth prime number. "It is through the language used that you assume you have a defined amount of rooms, "infinite". You will always have the amount of rooms for any amount of guests because any unending space can fit an unending amount of things." Well, this is only true if we're solely considering countably infinite sets. The issue of uncountable sets is bit beside the point though. What's important here is that you are essentially correct. The hotel rooms can indeed accommodate the new guests. That's the point. The hotel can accommodate any countable set of people. It's just that the hotel can also have one person in every room when starting out. "To say that this space is full, is to define it in a measurable way thereby taking away it's quality of being infinite." No. You literally defined infinity up above. Infinite means never ending. It does not mean impossible to measure or define. The basic reality is that there are ways of measuring and dealing with infinity. "Meaning that the infinite hotel will never be full because it simply HAS rooms. Not has 10 rooms, not 11, not 500, just simply HAS rooms." Just magically having rooms is also not a quality of infinity. The rooms are endless, yes, but so are the guests, and it is quite possible to line the endless rooms up with the endless guests.
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  235. ​ @koko10900  "I'm going to be honest this will be my last response because clearly you aren't understanding me." I understand you reasonably well. You are just wrong for the most part. It's your prerogative to respond or not respond. "If you would like to measure infinity, by all means, do what no one has ever done before. Given that any infinite thing has no defined quantity, good luck." Gregor Cantor predates me by about a century and a half, and the broader study of infinity has proceeded just fine both before and after him, so the idea that no one has done this before is wildly inaccurate. "Having a specific set of infinity doesn't by any means, mean you've measured it." No, that alone does not constitute a measurement. What does constitute a measurement is determining the cardinality of the sets involved. Two sets have the same size if you can pair the elements of one to the other on a one to one basis. All countably infinite sets have the same cardinality. Uncountably infinite sets have greater cardinality. "Secondly, once you've made claim that you have an infinite number of people, you've claimed all the whole numbers of people that can exist." Nope. I started with the integers and picked the positive ones, but I don't have to do it like that. Say I start with the natural numbers and pick out only the even ones. Even numbers are infinite, but they do not constitute all the numbers. Nor do they constitute all the people, given I have one for each natural number. "At least we both agree on the fact you can't have negative people or fractions of them counting as people." I think you're misunderstanding the scenario somewhat. I'm saying I'm giving each person numerical labels. This means there can, in fact, be a person -1. My stated scenario used the integers, and so there was a "negative person". It is not strictly necessary that we involve people with negative or fraction labels though. It's actually possible to break any countably infinite set into infinitely many countably infinite sets, so we can narrow things as much as you like and this still works just fine. "You've claimed the basic infinite set of whole numbers. Adding one to it is also within that set." What if I add -1 to it? Or 1/2? I've added a single element, and have something from outside the set. "And again, this is not measured because you haven't given it a defined specific size by which I mean an alloted numbered value by which it can't be anything else." Actually, the cardinalities I talked about above do have specified values. All the infinities we've been talking about have the cardinality aleph 0. The likely next biggest infinite set, aleph 1, includes sets like the set of all real numbers (I say likely because, as I recall, the existence of a set with cardinality between those two is undecidable given standard axioms). "You further haven't answered my main claim in that at some point there will have been a vacant and so non full room, unless of course the existence of a room means it's filled in which case this thought experiment is pointless because again you're creating two things that can't exist separately of each other." This is pretty straightforward. Using this infinite set of people, you can fill all the rooms. By moving the set of people around, you can empty a single room. You never have to have an empty room, but you can have one if you want to. You can produce just about any result you want just by moving people around. You can leave five rooms empty, or infinitely many rooms. You can assign infinite people to every room, or you can assign infinite rooms to every person. The possibilities are literally endless.
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  289. Yeah, that's what it sounds like. Basically, any set of numbers that you can put in any kind of list is going to be exactly the same size as any other set with that quality. So the whole numbers and odd numbers are obviously like that. The integers are a bit less obviously like that, because you can list them like 0, 1, -1, 2, -2... The fractions are not at all obviously like that. For that ordering, you want to make a chart with the integers hanging out on the X and Y axis, and then the entries in the chart use the X axis as the numerator and the Y as the denominator (the Y axis excludes zero). Then you make this big zig zagging line that goes through every entry in the list, remove any repeats, and you have a full ordering of the rationals. Even less obvious is the set of algebraic numbers. Those are the real numbers that you can write as a finite algebraic expression. So, like the square root of 2 would be an algebraic number. Phi is an algebraic number too. But something like pi cannot be expressed that way, and so is not algebraic. The ordering there is relatively straightforward. You can kinda treat each part of the expression as a digit, and then remove illogical combinations. The reason all these sets have the same size is because you can easily create a mapping of the sort I mentioned. All the elements are already in a list, so there's a first element, a second element, a third element, and so on. All you need to do is pair the nth element of set A to the nth element of set B and the mapping is done. The real numbers cannot be listed this way, and so that is a bigger set.
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  380. I never really needed to "subtract" 24 from infinity, as it were. The set {25, 26, 27...} is already its own infinite set without ever needing to rely on a second infinite set. Phrasing it in terms of the natural numbers is convenient, but not necessary. Thus, any argument that relies on the presence of this process isn't all that effective. As for measuring infinity, yes you can. It just doesn't look the same as finite measures. For example, we can directly compare the size of the naturals and reals. The classic method is cardinality. Simply put, you attempt to map each element of set A to an element of set B and account for all of set B. If this is possible, then A is at least as big as B. Otherwise, B is strictly larger. Then you do the inverse, mapping B to A. If the first mapping and the second were possible, then the sets are the same size. Otherwise, well, I've already indicated how you identify one set as larger. Correspondingly, it is impossible to create such a mapping from the integers to the reals, but very possible to do so from the reals to the integers. So the set of reals is larger. Not every single thing we associate with measure will necessarily work properly. Percentage, for example, runs into issues. One of those issues is with cardinality itself though. If you take an infinite set, and then consider some finite non-zero percentage of that set, then that new set will always have the same cardinality as the original. Any attempt is necessarily somewhat problematic. You can certainly create something that seems like this 75%-ing though. Line the infinite piece of wood up with a number line, and mark any section that falls between a multiple of 4 and that value plus one. Then, take as your 75% everything left unmarked. What you'll be left with would, again, be as big as your original piece of wood, but it'd also be 75% However, this other type of measure, where we simply compare the size of two infinite sets, works fine. The Lebesgue measure works as well. This is where you create a set of open intervals that covers every element of the infinite set in question that covers the least space. The size of this least quantity of space is the Lebesgue measure. For any subset of the natural numbers, or even any subset of the rationals, the Lebesgue measure will always be zero. However, something like the interval (0,1), which is all the real numbers between those points, will have a Lebesgue measure of 1.
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  414.  @jayjeckel  No, I can do it because I already did it. It is what is called in math a constructive proof. You prove that a thing can be done by doing it. In this case, the question is whether there is a bijective mapping from all the guests in the full hotel plus one additional guest to the rooms in the full hotel. And there is one. In particular, this mapping is that guest n, where the new guest is guest 0, goes to room n+1. Clean bijective mapping. No new rooms or initially unoccupied rooms needed. It might be easier for you to get a handle on it if we ditch the hotel for something more abstract. There are infinitely many primes, right? It makes sense, then, to talk about the first prime, the second prime, the fifth prime, the 100th prime. In fact, no matter which prime you want, it'll be there. Because there are infinitely many of them. What this means, however, is that there is a one to one mapping from natural numbers to primes. The first prime goes to one, the fifth prime goes to five, the 100th prime goes to 100, and so on. Every natural and every prime is accounted for exactly once each. We can, if we want, extend this reasoning back to the hotel. There's a guest for each natural number, because they're assigned to the natural numbered rooms. We can, therefore, cleanly map the guests in this full hotel to only the prime numbered rooms. This leaves us with infinitely many empty rooms, all the composite numbered ones (which are also infinite), and all just by moving people.
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  475. I understand infinity quite well. From, y'know, studying mathematics a lot. It is entirely possible to fill an infinite hotel. All you need to do is generate a bijective mapping from the set of guests to the set of rooms. Consider a more abstract example. You have two sets, the set of natural numbers, and the exact same set of natural numbers. Can you pair elements of the first set with elements of the second set such that no elements of either set are left over? Of course. Just pair each element in the first set with the same element in the second set. In order to extend this situation to the hotel and guests, you need simply call the first set the guests and call the second set the hotel rooms. By this means, we have our mapping. Every guest has an exact room assignment, and conversely, every room has an exact guest assignment. Room one has guest one, room two has guest two, and so on. This is how countability functions. If you have two countably infinite sets, then, by definition, one can be bijectively mapped onto the other. Both the hotel rooms and the guests, even when the guests are on infinite buses, are countable infinities. Take note, this is not the only possible mapping. It is very much possible to generate a mapping where exactly one room is empty, or where infinite rooms are empty, or where any natural number of rooms is empty, or where every room has infinite guests, or where every guest has infinite rooms. I can provide any of these mappings for you, should you so desire. Their existence is far from theoretical.
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