Comments by "eggynack" (@eggynack) on "TED-Ed" channel.

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  11. I don't need to prove that infinity is the only thing that has this property, primarily because it's irrelevant. For any sort of finite number, we can prove pretty easily that that sort of finite number changes when you add one to it. For any sort of infinite number, we can pretty easily prove that it doesn't change when you add one to it. For example, for any real number, adding one will change either the ones place, or, if the ones place and some quantity of other places greater than it have 9's, then the first non-9 will change. It's just how addition works. As for infinity being a number, again, not all that relevant. What matters is whether we can add to it, and, y'know, we can. It's not all that difficult. If you want to call it something besides a number, go right ahead, but we can still generally add or subtract with it. Not always, and I'll naturally fall into such a case in a moment, but we know what those cases are. This question is not one of proof but of definition. Define number, and if that definition fits infinity, then we call infinity a number, and otherwise we come up with a different name. That gets to your final post, where you assert that infinity minus infinity equals zero. It doesn't. Infinity minus infinity is an indeterminate, meaning it does not have any one value. In this particular case, that means it can take on any value (mostly, cause countable infinity is inevitably going to be something of a bound). You can put infinite guests into the hotel and get zero vacancies, or you can get exactly one vacancy, if you fill all but the first room, or you can get five vacancies, by skipping the first five rooms, or you can get infinite vacancies, by filling only even rooms, or you could get what we might call negative vacancies, by putting anywhere from two to infinite people in every room, or we could assign everyone infinite rooms, whatever you wanna call that.
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  28. Sure, we don't physically see infinite things, but that doesn't mean pondering infinity is useless. This scenario has some pretty direct extensions into mathematics, and math has tons of obvious applications. This is really just a restatement of the general notion of mapping a countably infinite set into itself, which is a pretty straightforward idea when all is said and done. As for whether calculus, and math in general, would be way different if we replaced infinity with massive numbers, the answer, straightforwardly, is yes. Not because we actually need that level of precision in order to have a workable model, but because infinity actually just makes things a lot easier. The derivative of x^2 is 2x. Super easy. Now, instead, imagine figuring out the slope by physically zooming in on that curve and taking measures of slopes that are progressively closer to the one you want to measure, until you get a level of approximation you're comfortable with. The result would be, like, incredibly close to 2x without actually being 2x, and you'd presumably have to determine a result whenever you want to figure out the answer at a different point. And that's one of the more straightforward applications of calculus. There's this weird misconception that calculus makes things harder (and, to be clear, calculus without the infinite really wouldn't be calculus in the first place), but what it really does is take the ostensibly discrete natural world and render it in a much easier to work with continuous way. A lot of things we do with infinity just aren't all that plausible without it.
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  34.  @sinisterministertv3622  There are more numbers in any interval of real numbers than there are natural numbers. The mode of proving this is Cantor's diagonal argument. First, you need some notion of size that extends to infinite sets. For this, we say that two sets are the same size if you can pair elements of the first set with elements of the second set on a one to one basis. So, {1,2,3} is the same size as {5, -1, pi}. Any pairing with the set {4, 5, 6, 7} would fail to account for at least one element of that set, so we say that this new set is bigger. Now compare, say, the set of naturals to the set of all integers. We may expect the integers to be larger, but this is mistaken. We can order the naturals straightforwardly as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5..., and the integers somewhat less straightforwardly as 0, 1, -1, 2, -2... and creating the mapping is as easy as pairing the first element of the first set with the first element of the second set, second element to second element, third element to third element, and so on. From this we may conclude, and correctly so, that creating an ordering of the elements of an infinite set is equivalent to showing this set is the same size as the naturals, and that the inability to do so means the set is bigger. So, can such a list be created for the real numbers between, say, 0 and 1? Assume, for the sake of argument, that we can. Let's write out such an arbitrary list: 1. .008123491... 2. .423419056... 3. .123412342... 4. .512512341... and so on. This list, by assumption, features every real number between zero and one. I will now generate a new number, and thus demonstrate the premise of the list's existence contradictory. Make a number where the first digit is equal to the first digit of the first number, the second digit is equal to the second digit of the second number, and so on. So, .0235... Now, change each digit. I'll add one to each, and 9's become 0's. So, .1346... This number cannot be on the original list. It can't be the first number, because the first digit is different. It can't be the second number, because the second digit is different. And so on. Any list will have this problem. Thus, this interval of reals is bigger than the naturals, and the same argument applies to any such interval. Infinity is weird. This video was about how sets with the same size can be mapped to each other, but, as you can see, it's not trivial to identify that the sets in question are the same size. The infinite buses are as big as the hotel, but this other set is bigger.
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