Hearted Youtube comments on Mathologer (@Mathologer) channel.

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  73. (28 March) Really bizarre, this video was basically invisible for almost two weeks with hardly any recommendations going out to fans. Only now YouTube has decided to actually show it to people. Who knows, maybe it was a mistake to mention cat videos in previous videos and the YouTube AI is now under the impression that the target audience for these videos has changed :) The longest Mathologer video ever, just shy of an hour (eventually it's going to happen :) One video I've been meaning to make for a long, long time. A Mathologerization of the Law of Quadratic Reciprocity. This is another one of my MASTERCLASS videos. The slide show consists of 550 slides and the whole thing took forever to make. Just to give you an idea of the work involved in producing a video like this, preparing the subtitles for this video took me almost 4 hours. Why do anything as crazy as this? Well, just like many other mathematicians I consider the law of quadratic reciprocity as one of the most beautiful and surprising facts about prime numbers. While other mathematicians were inspired to come up with ingenious proofs of this theorem, over 200 different proofs so far and counting, I thought I contribute to it's illustrious history by actually trying me very best of getting one of those crazily complicated proofs within reach of non-mathematicians, to make the unaccessible accessible. Now let's see how many people are actually prepared to watch a (close to) one hour long math(s) video :). Have a look at the description for relevant links and more background info. The first teaching semester at the university where I teach just started last week and all my teaching and lots of other stuff will happen this semester. This means I won't have much time for any more crazily time-consuming projects like this. Galois theory will definitely has to wait until the second half of this year :( Still, quite a bit of beautiful doable stuff coming up. So stay tuned.
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  151. Challenges: 1) We can guarantee at least 5 on one side. There are two ways to split the pigeons: 3-2 and 4-1. The max you can hit for both of them is 3 and 4 respectively. So we have at least 3 pigeons on one side. Add in the two pigeons on the equator and we have 5. 2) let the mystery value equal x. by multiplying by 10^some integer until the digits line up again, and then subtracting, we have 10^whatever*x - x = the non-repeating part you're left with. Factor out x on the left and that 10^whatever - 1 becomes a bumch of 9s. Then divide and we have the non-repeating remainder over a bunch of 9s. If ever the remainder isn't an integer just multiply both the numerator and denominator by 10 to knock out the decimal. Example: 0.4318181818... x = 0.4318181818... 100x = 43.18181818.... 99x = 42.75 (all the 18s afterward cancel out) x = 42.75/99 x = 4275/9900 x = 19/44 (simplify) 3) let's pretend we color the "didn't shake hands" white. We leave the "shook hands" black. So all we have to do is prove a triangle exists somewhere, and it doesn't matter what color. Note that each dot will always have at least three lines of the same color connecting to it, for the same reason the pigeons in challenge 1 can be split into a side with at least 3 and a side with less. Look at a point, and follow three lines of the same color (I'll choose black) to three other points. Any line connecting two of these three points would either be black or white. If it were black, that would make a triangle with the two points and the starting point. If it weren't, then the three dots all have white lines between them, which makes another different triangle. 4) 315. And no, I didn't count manually. Here's how I found out: The 7 edges UB, UR, RB, DB, DL, LB, and UL, all commute in one big cycle of length 7. The remaining 5 edges do the same. The 5 corners URF, ULF, DRF, DLF, and DRB go back in their positions but in the wrong orientation. So it takes 3 cycles to get back to their original orientation. The same thing happens with the other 3 corners in the back, only this time they take 9 cycles because they permute around each other too as well as reorient themselves. All that's left is to compute the lcm of 7, 5, 3, and 9, which turns out to be 315. 5) 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, and 64. Any collection just results in the binary representation of the number. Since every number can be written in binary in only one way, every single collection will add to a different number. 6) Queen of Hearts. The 9 of Hearts at the start signals the suit of the missing card is Hearts. The remaining three kings can be sorted as MBT (Diamond, Club, Spade), which is assigned 3. 3 spots after 9 is the Queen, and putting it all together we have Queen of Hearts. Edit: I forgot one, challenge 5 at chapter 6
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  427. So for that first puzzle... I think my mind just got blown I started with 5 since I was basing on the fact that the first equation of both patterns end and start with 3 (1 + 2 = 3 and 3² + 4² = 5²), so why not do the same for the cube pattern. What I ended up is that 5³ + 6³ = 341, which is almost close to 7³ = 343. I was curious enough, so I tried to expand this by utilizing the same trick from the previous patterns and used 6*(1 + 2) for the next pattern and got 16³ + 17³ + 18³ ≈ 19³ + 20³ (with the difference being 18) Expanding this pattern leaves me with a list of differences and... I don't know about you, but (2, 18, 72, 200, etc.) just screams "I have a pattern"... and it does! Each difference is just twice a triangular number *squared*, and knowing that just blew my goddamn mind... because THAT'S LITERALLY HOW I STARTED working on this pattern. For each sum that uses 6(1 + 2 + ... + n) cubed as a starting point, there is a difference of 2(1 + 2 + ... + n)². How cool is that!? In honor to document this amazing pattern, here's my christmas tree for the cube pattern, with the difference added in. You can think of them like they're ornaments or something xD (the formatting might only work with monitors) 5³ + 6³ = 7³ - 2 16³ + 17³ + 18³ = 19³ + 20³ - 18 33³ + 34³ + 35³ + 36³ = 37³ + 38³ + 39³ - 72 56³ + 57³ + 58³ + 59³ + 60³ = 61³ + 62³ + 63³ + 64³ - 200 85³ + 86³ + 87³ + 88³ + 89³ + 90³ = 91³ + 92³ + 93³ + 94³ + 95³ - 450 ... and here's another one with the sum expanded, just to see the beauty :D 5³ + [6(1)]³ = 7³ - 2(1)² 16³ + 17³ + [6(1 + 2)]³ = 19³ + 20³ - 2(1 + 2)² 33³ + 34³ + 35³ + [6(1 + 2 + 3)]³ = 37³ + 38³ + 39³ - 2(1 + 2 + 3)² 56³ + 57³ + 58³ + 59³ + [6(1 + 2 + 3 + 4)]³ = 61³ + 62³ + 63³ + 64³ - 2(1 + 2 + 3 + 4)² 85³ + 86³ + 87³ + 88³ + 89³ + [6(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5)]³ = 91³ + 92³ + 93³ + 94³ + 95³ - 2(1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 5)² ...
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  571. Thanks a lot, Mathaloger! I have studied some works of Madhava but didn't know about these beautiful correction terms. Our textbooks in India still reflect a post-colonial mindset, resulting in a significant lack of awareness and ignorance. Unfortunately, many important contributions from Indian scholars are overlooked or not adequately highlighted. For instance, Baudhayana, who authored the world's first geometry textbook, including the Pythagorean theorem long before Pythagoras, is rarely mentioned. Similarly, Pingala's profound insights into permutations and combinations within the context of literature are often disregarded, despite their beauty and significance. Aryabhata's foundational work in trigonometry, which forms the basis of our modern understanding, also receives insufficient attention. Furthermore, there's no mention of Madhava, or any mathematician from the Nila school, in our great textbooks. They only perpetuate a subtle sense of inferiority complex by failing to acknowledge these remarkable achievements. It is high time for a change in our educational curriculum. One aspect I particularly admire is India's significant contributions to philosophy and spirituality. These traditions are not only highly logical but also explore the limitations of logic itself, as evident in the concept of non-dualism. Additionally, architectural marvels like the Kailash temple exemplify India's profound knowledge in the field of architecture. Regrettably, we have lost a great deal of knowledge due to constant invasions, including the destruction of the precious Nalanda University, the world's first residential university. There is so much more to be said about India's marvelous contributions to the world. It is my hope that our generation recognizes and appreciates the immense legacy left by our ancestors. Thank you so much again. Keep up the amazing work that you do!!
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  644. The general formula for the sum of 1/x^(2n) is hidden in here too, and only requires a few extra steps. Start from the chapter 2 formula and take logs and derivatives to get the formula at 10:40: cot(x) = 1/x + 1/(x-pi) + 1/(x+pi) + 1/(x-2pi) + 1/(x+2pi) + ... Move the 1/x term to the left side, and take 2n-1 more derivatives. The k'th derivative of 1/x is (-1)^k * k!/x^(k+1), so when k = 2n-1 this is -(2n-1)!/x^(2n). So we have (d/dx)^(2n-1) (cot(x) - 1/x) = -(2n-1)! * (1/(x-pi)^(2n) + 1/(x+pi)^(2n) + ...) Now divide by -(2n-1)! and take the limit as x -> 0. 1/(2n-1)! * lim x -> 0 [(d/dx)^(2n-1) (1/x - cot(x))] = 1/(-pi)^(2n) + 1/pi^(2n) + 1/(-2pi)^(2n) + 1/(2pi)^(2n) + ... On the right side, all the negatives are squared away, and we end up with 2 copies of each term. So multiply by pi^(2n)/2, and we get this: pi^(2n)/2 * 1/(2n-1)! * lim x -> 0 [(d/dx)^(2n-1) (1/x - cot(x))] = 1 + 1/2^(2n) + 1/3^(2n) + ... = zeta(2n) This formula looks messy, but there's a trick: notice that on the left, we have something of the form 1/k! * k'th derivative of f(x) at x=0. These are just taylor series coefficients! The left side is really just pi^(2n)/2 times the coefficient of x^(2n-1) in the taylor series of 1/x - cot(x). There are a few other things we can do to make the formula easier to read. We can multiply the function by x to make the powers line up nicely (otherwise the 1/k^8 sum will be related to the coefficient of x^7, instead of x^8). This gives: zeta(2n) = pi^(2n)/2 * coefficient of x^(2n) in the taylor series of 1 - x cot(x) The next thing we can do is move the pi^(2n) "inside" the taylor series, by replacing x with pi x. We can also move the factor of 1/2 into the function. Then we get: zeta(2n) = coefficient of x^(2n) in the taylor series of (1 - pi x cot(pi x))/2, or equivalently, (1 - pi x cot(pi x))/2 = sum n=1..inf, zeta(2n)x^(2n) And indeed, if you ask wolframalpha to compute the taylor series of (1 - pi x cot(pi x))/2, you get pi^2/6 x^2 + pi^4/90 x^4 + pi^6/945 x^6 + pi^8/9450 x^8 + ... Finally, comparing this series to the standard taylor series for cot in terms of Bernoulli numbers gives Euler's general formula for zeta(2n)
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  650. Hi, I did find another way to "build" youre cubes. Instead of adding the hexagons, you can add 1+ (1+2+3), than add 7 + (3+4+5), and 19+ (5+6+7), ... If you look in the video at 8:39 you see the second cube. To go to the next cube you need to add one side, so 3 pieces, lets say on the left, then you add 4 pieces to the right side (3 pieces for the original cube and one piece for the just added row), and finaly you add the bottom with 5 pieces to get back to the cube. Now if you look at the numbers you add they are left and right from the yellow marked number in the top row (2 and 4 sandwidch the 3; 5 and 7 the 6,...) And these yellow numbers are diviceble by 3 (by construction) So you get a sequens of (3n-1)+(3n+1) and that is the same as 2(3n). We could write 2(3n) also as 3(2n). This we can convert in (2n-1)+(2n)+(2n+1). And this is the secuence you are adding to youre cube. (Note "n" is the base number from youre last cube, and the counting number of youre tripple (where 3 is the 1st; 6 the 2nd;9 the 3th;12 the 4th,..)) Notice that by every step you go up you start with the same number you stopt with the last time. (2n+1)=(2n+2-1)=(2(n+1)-1) So the cube you end up with has a sidelenght of 2n+1. And you start the next step just adding that side to youre cube I hope you can see how i find this a bit easyer to construct the cube. Also this is in a way the same you construct youre squares (if you start with "skipping" just one number at the top) if you notice that every odd number is the sum of its position + its position -1. (5 is the 3th odd number and it is 3+2; 9 is the 5th odd number and it is 5+4; ...). Also here you get that the last digit you added the last time you start to add the next time. (but you only get 2 numbers). Note; this methode does not work in the fourth or higher dimensions. Why? Well I'm not a mathematitian. So I don't know. And I have trouble imagining in four dimentions. Hope this is helpfull. Sorry for my bad English, I speak Dutch. Greetings from Belgium.
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  675.  @zacharyjoseph5522  It's a bit tricky to explain without diagrams, but I'll do my best. Let us call the whole shape G for glasses. First consider the pair of 2x3 rectangles at the extreme left and right of the glasses. If a domino is placed which crosses the border between the 2x3 and the rest of the glasses, then the 2x3 is left with a region of size 5, so cannot be covered. We therefore know that the dominoes covering the pair of 2x3 areas are necessarily wholly within the 2x3 areas, so the tilings would be the same if the 2x3 regions were actually disconnected from the glasses. So if we let G' be the glasses without this pair of 2x3 regions and if we let N be the function counting the number of tilings of a shape, then we have N(G) = N(2x3)^2*N(G'), as the tilings of the pair of 2x3 regions and the tiling of G' are independent. We'll need names for a few other things, so we'll call the boundary of a hole E for eye. So the eye is the 10 squares directly surrounding the hole. Consider the middle 2x2 in G'. Imagine a vertical line L cutting this 2x2 into two pieces. This line divides G' into two equal copies of the same shape, an eye with a 2x1 hanging off one side and a 2x2 hanging off the other. We'll call this shape E+2x2+2x1 Now if we consider tilings with no domino crossing L, then clearly the number is N(E+2x2+2x1)^2, as the tilings of the two shapes on either side of L are independent. If instead we have a domino crossing L, then we must in fact have 2 dominoes crossing L. This is because otherwise we'd create a region of odd size, which couldn't be tiled. In this arrangement with 2 dominoes crossing L, we again have two identical regions to tile, but this time they are E+2x2, following the naming convention for the previous shape. In this case there are N(E+2x2)^2 tilings. So we've shown that N(G') = N(E+2x2+2x1)^2+N(E+2x2)^2. Next we consider E+2x2+2x1. If the 2x1 area is covered by one domino, then we're left with tiling E+2x2. Otherwise, then the tiling is forced all the way to a remaining 2x2 region. Therefore N(E+2x2+2x1) = N(E+2x2)+N(2x2). Now we consider E+2x2. Imagine a line L' dividing the E from the 2x2. If no domino crosses L', then the E and 2x2 are tiled separately, so we get N(E)*N(2x2) tilings. If instead a domino crosses L', then the rest of tiling is forced, so we get 1 such tiling. Therefore N(E+2x2) = N(E)*N(2x2)+1. The remainder is not especially hard to check. N(E) = N(2x2) = 2, so N(E+2x2) = 2*2+1 = 5, N(E+2x2+2x1) = 5+2 = 7, N(G') = 7^2+5^2 = 74. Finally N(2x3) = 3, so N(G) = 3^2*74 = 666.
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  774. Merry Christmas! 6:11 - You could pick the two blacks in the top left corner. It would isolate the corner green square, so not every combination of 4 squares removed is tileable. 10:13 - say m = 2p-1 and n=2q-1. The denominators in the cosines will be 2p and 2q. Carrying out the product, when j=p and m=q, we will have a term (4cos²(π/2)+4cos²(π/2)), which is 0, cancelling out everything else 13:50 - Lets say T(n) is the number of ways to tile a 2xn rectangle. First two are obviously T(1)=1 and T(2)=2. For the nth one, lets look at it from left to right. We can start by placing a tile vertically, which will isolate a 2x(n-1) rect. - so T(n-1) ways of doing it in this case. If we instead place a tile horizontally on the top, we will be forced to place another one directly below, so we don't isolate the bottom left square, this then isolates a 2x(n-2) - so T(n-2) ways of doing it in this case. ---- We have T(n) = T(n-1) + T(n-2). Since 1 and 2 are fibonacci numbers, the sequence will keep spitting out fibonacci numbers 14:33 - It's 666. I did it by considering all possible ways the center square can be filled and carrying out the possibilities. It was also helpful to see that the 2x3 rectangles at the edges are always tiled independently. I was determined to do all the homework in this video, but hell no I wont calculate that determinant, sorry 30:12 - I'll leave this one in the back of my mind, but for now I'm not a real math master. I'm also not a programmer, but this feels like somehting fun to program 37:28 - Just look at the cube stack straight from one of the sides, all you'll see is an nxn wall, either blue, yellow, or gray
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  795. Your concerns are well founded. I was a math and science teacher at two private schools in the United States (each time for two years). The textbook selections never aligned well with my ideals of making math and science relevant, useful and entertaining. For 3 of the four years, I was able to accomplish that in spite of the books. During the 4th year the academic police state finally caught up with me, insisting that the reasons we teach anything are foremost to increase test scores and grow our market share through test-based reputation. That authority banned all non-standard curricula and forced me out of the profession I loved. All the texts from which I taught were ostensibly aligned with their goals. They were also filled with endless drills, BS examples, incomplete history, and frankly serpentine reasoning far more likely to confuse that to convey any valuable understanding. I’ve lived 4 years in Germany (which was a bit better) and 4 more in South Korea (which seemed much better). Unfortunately, the Korean kids were under immense pressure to perform, making almost all of them profoundly depressed and/or stressed from perhaps 10 years of age. Most of the great contributors to the betterment of our world recognize the importance of conquering fun challenges. Both mindless, meaningless repetition and idiotic complication turn beautifully curious and malleable children into miserable adults. When teaching became primarily the indoctrination of future workers, it necessarily ceased teaching young people to think critically and creatively in favor of teaching them to do what those in authority tell them. This bodes terribly for the future and causes me to be deeply concerned for our posterity. Thank you for making learning the entertaining challenge it’s meant to be!
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  876. Fantastic video! A more computationally-efficient method than the determinant method, which also easily and transparently deals with single and multiple zeros: Step 1: After using k delayed copies of the original sequence, instead of repeatedly computing determinants (as in the video), take a rectangular “snapshot” — this is a rectangular matrix of size k-by-n, with n > k. Step 2: Transpose this matrix (so now it’s n-by-k with n > k) and compute its “economy” SVD (singular value decomposition). There are many existing software libraries to do this. This step is the only computationally-intensive step, whose complexity is O(n k^2), which is much less than the determinant method as stated in the video, which is O(n k^3), or even more if care is not taken… Step 3: Now, look at the singular values: If one or more of the smallest singular values is/are zero, then we’re sure this is what Burkard calls “Fibonacci-like sequence”, something usually called “linear recurrence with constant coefficients” (which he mentioned in the video). However, if none of the singular values is zero, then repeat with larger k, i.e., more delayed copies of the original sequence. Step 4: The linear recurrence with constant coefficients is easily determined from the column of the SVD result corresponding to the zero singular value (because this is the vector which can zero-out any set of k consecutive elements of the sequence). Specifically, if the “economy” SVD result of the original n-by-k matrix is U, s, Vt, then the last row of the square k-by-k matrix Vt will be the desired set of linear constant recurrence values. This last row has size 1-by-k, of course. These values will probably need to be scaled by a common multiple if nice integer values are desired! Move the 1st element of this set of k values to the other side of the equation to use as a prediction recurrence equation, i.e., the next value is determined linearly from the previous k-1 values. Remark: The idea of a singular value decomposition (SVD) is mathematically very closely related to a determinant, because it essentially also determines linear combinations of columns (and/or rows). But it is more computationally-efficient in this case, because it can be computed for a rectangular set of values simultaneously, rather than small squares of values one after the other. The second advantage of the SVD is that it can also give us the linear recurrence with constant coefficients “for free” (from the same computational result).
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  894. Let's collect some interesting comments and remarks as they come in (also check out the description of this video): VincentvanderN I don't know if this is already down here somewhere in the comments, but 2 x 2 = 2 + 2 can be used to show that there are infinitely many prime numbers. We generate a sequence a_1, a_2, a_3 etc by starting with a_1 = 3 and a_{n + 1} = a_n^2 - 2. Now we use our freak equation to show that if q is a prime divisor of some a_m, it cannot be a prime divisor of a_n for any n > m. (And then, as a result neither of an a_n with n < m, because otherwise we could repeat the proof with n in the role of m and get a contradiction.) Here is the argument. Look at the sequence a_m, a_{m+1}, ... modulo q. We have a_m = 0 mod q, a_{m+1} = - 2 mod q, a_{m + 2} = 2 mod q, and then, by the freak equation 2 x 2 = 2 + 2 (in the form 2 x 2 - 2 = 2) we get that a_{m + k} = 2 for all k >= 2. Neat, right? I believe I learned this from Proofs from the Book. charlesstpierre9502 Use 2x2=2+2 to make a formula for generating Pythagorean triples. Start with two positive integers m > n. Then (2×2)(mn)² = (2+2)(mn)² (2×2)(mn)² = 2(mn)² + 2(mn)² (2×2)(mn)² = 2(mn)² + 2(mn)² + (m⁴ - m⁴) + (n⁴ - n⁴) (2×2)(mn)² = m⁴ + n⁴ + 2(mn)² - m⁴ - n⁴ + 2(mn)² (2mn)² = (m² + n²)² - (m² - n²)² Set: a = m² - n² b = 2mn c = m² + n² Then: a² + b² = c² This will not work for: aᵏ + bᵏ = cᵏ; k > 2 franknijhoff6009 Hi Burkhard, the 3-variable equation plays a role in integrable systems. In fact, it appeared in Sklyanin's work on quadratic Poisson algebras (around 1982) providing solutions in terms of elliptic functions, and (with an extra constant) as the equation for the monodromy manifold of the Painleve II equation. Sklyanin's paper is: Some algebraic structures associated with the Yang-Baxter equation. Functional.Anal.i Prilozhen 1982 vol 16, issue 4,pp 27-34 ; look at equation (27). Furthermore, in L.O. Chekhov etc al., Painleve Monodromy Manifolds, Decorated Character Varieties and Cluster Algebras , IMRN vol 2017, pp 7639--7691 you can find in Table 1 a close variant of the 3variable equation with extra parameters. I think it would be interesting to explore this idea with exponents. For example 1+1+1+1+2+3=3^2^1^1^1^1 2¹×2¹=2¹+2¹ 3½×3½×3½=3½+3½+3½ 4⅓×4⅓×4⅓×4⅓=4⅓+4⅓+4⅓+4⅓ 5¼×5¼×5¼×5¼×5¼=5¼+5¼+5¼+5¼+5¼ ... tanA + tanB + tanC = tanA x tanB x tanC (that's the identity that features prominently in the Heron's formula video) For completeness sake and for fun let's mention 2⁴ = 4² 2 + 2 = 2 × 2 = 2² log(1+2+3)=log(1)+log(2)+log(3) log(2+2)=log(2)+log(2)=2log(2) https://www.mtai.org.in/wp-content/uploads/2023/09/IOQM_Sep_2023_Question-paper-with-answer-key.pdf ... 29th question in an Indian maths olympiad problem Check out this paper by Maciej Zakarczemny, On the equal sum and product problem (linked to in the description of this video) http://www.iam.fmph.uniba.sk/amuc/ojs/index.php/amuc/article/view/1662 Theorem 5.1. says If there are exactly two sum-equals-product identitites , then one of the following two conditions is true: 1. n - 1 is a prime and 2n - 1 \in { p, p^2, p^3, pq } , 2. 2n - 1 is a prime and n - 1 \in { p, p^2, p^3, pq } , where p, q denote prime numbers. Why don't we start out the sequence of basic sum-equals-product identities with 1=1? Well, N=N for all N :) Very tempting to add the 1=1 at the top. To not do so is very much in line with not calling 1 a prime (saves you a lot of unnecessary heart ache further down the line :) For this video I played around with generating some AI animated photos of Sophie Germain using https://www.myheritage.com/deep-nostalgia as well as with the ChatGPT generated rendering of Sophie Germain in the thumbnail. Here I fed the AI some of the existing pictures of Sophie Germain and asked it to play artist to come up with a picture of her in the same style used in this real picture of Leibniz https://www.alamy.com/gottfried-von-leibniz-image5071937.html). Lots of fun and quite eerie :) Not perfect, but will be interesting to find out what the machines can do in 6 months time (and at what point the machines can make better Mathologer videos than the Mathologer :( In general quite a bit of AI hate in this comment section. Strangely I've never had people complain about me using any of those generic white men with beards images of ancient mathematicians that museums are full of. Sophie Germain primes and safe primes (the 2n+1 primes) are important in cryptography, those involving prime fields. Because if the size field is a prime p, the size of its multiplicative group is p-1. For the group to be secure, the multiplicative group must have a large subgroup of prime size so p-1 must have a prime factor. So, having a prime q such that 2q+1 is also a prime is a good candidate. Even though it is not strictly required as long as p-1 has a big enough prime factor, this is what students are taught as a start. Kaprekar's constant is among the lengths corresponding to exactly two sum-equals-product identities (discussed at the end of this video :) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/6174 Cunningham chains are an interesting generalisation of Sophie Germain primes (chains of primes such that the next prime in the chain is always the previous one times 2 plus 1). https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Cunningham_chain If you are happy to also play this game with negative integers then you get more solutions. In particular, since (-1)+(-1)+1+1=0 and (-1)x(-1)x1x1=1, you can splice these two blocks into a/any sum-equals-product identity of length n to arrive at a sum-equals-product identity of length n+4. And for complex integers we've also got things like this: (1 - i) + (1 + i) = 1 - i + 1 + i = 1 + 1 -i + i = 2 + 0 = 2 = 1 + 1 = 1 - (-1) = 1 - i^2 = (1 - i)(1 + i) 2xy - (2+x+y) +1 = N-2 <=> 2xy - 2 - x - y +1 = N-2 <=> 2xy - x - y +1 = N <=> 4xy - 2x - 2y +2 = 2N <=> 2x(2y - 1) - 2y +2 = 2N <=> 2x(2y - 1) - (2y - 1) = 2N-1 <=> (2x - 1)(2y - 1) = 2N-1 Probably the easiest way to demonstrating this equivalence is to go backwards and start by expanding (2x-1)(2y-1)... Relevant Project Euler problem: 88 https://projecteuler.net/problem=88 Relevant Online Encyclopedia of integer sequences: A033178 @Frafour Tangentially related to 2x2 = 2+2: there is this video of Gromov (Gromov: 4 = 2 + 2 as "proof of Donaldson's theorem") https://youtu.be/bgePMb8wxv0?si=DmTf2wzbIr1F21f8 observing that 4 = 2+2 in 3 ways. That is, there are 3 ways to partition a 4-element set in two 2-element subsets. The fact that 3 is smaller than 4 is unique to 4, and produces a surjection from A_4 to A_3 - the alternating groups on 4 and 3 elements. This shows that A_4 is not simple, 4 is the only number where this happens, and this is responsible for many weird things in dimension 4. In another direction, I first encoutered Sophie Germain primes accidentally when learning group theory in my undergrad. There is an elementary proof of simplicity of the Mathieu groups M_11 and M_23, which actually gives a general simplicity criterion for subgroups of S_p, p prime https://www.jstor.org/stable/2974771?origin=crossref. When I read this I wondered if this ever works for proving simplicity of the alternating group A_p. If I remember correctly, it works precisely when p is a Sophie Germain prime! @YSCU261 The roots of a quadratic equation of the form x^2-bx+c=0 satisfy the following equations : r1+r2=b r1*r2=c So we have that the solutions of xy = x+y can be expressed as the solutions to the quadratic equation x^2-bx+b for all b this can be extended to x+y+z=xyz and so on with vieta's formulas
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  1020. Programming challenge (did this around 13:41): because all of the coins evenly divide a dollar, it must be the case that a sum of coins to a multiple of a dollar can be separated into some groups of coins in which no single denomination adds up to a dollar, and the rest, in which each single denomination adds up to a multiple of a dollar. The former cases can be enumerated by doing the product trick without the exponent of 100, and taking the coefficient of each exponent divisible by 100, including 0. There are ways to make change like this for zero through four dollars inclusive. This gives us one part of the solution. The other part is to determine how many ways the remainder could be made. But this is a simpler problem, because it's equivalent to asking "How many ways are there to add five (number of denominations - 1) boundaries to a set of a given size" which is equivalent to asking for (size of set + 5) choose 5, which can be hard-coded as a sequence of multiplications followed by a division. (I could have tried expanding out the polynomial explicitly, but that sounds like effort). So, the final answer is to, for each amount of dollars that can be made without using a dollar's worth of a single denomination, multiply that by the number of combinations for the remaining dollars. I coded this up in Python, and it's pretty fast. I just started added zeroes to the exponent on the ten, and it was pretty acceptable performance up to 2 * 10 ^ 100,000. I'll post the value for 2 * 10 ^ 1,000,000 when it finishes, because that's much slower. Okay, yeah, that took a few minutes. One sec... Oh geez, it overflowed the buffer. I'm not pasting five million digits in here. See https://pastebin.com/MA2a9p3R EDIT: At 23:02 I'm seeing the same coefficients in the center row that I had my program calculate for "ways to make dollars without a single denomination adding up to a dollar" So I guess this is going in the same direction.
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  1105. Since 2020/4 = 505 which has prime factors 5 and 101, we just have the power set of {5,101} which is {1,5,101,505}. Since both 5 and 101 are congruent to 1 mod 4, they are both good and so are all their products. You definitely gave us an easy one. So 4 good - 0 bad gives us 16 ways of writing 2020 as the product of squares. To find them, we'll first use the usual trick of dividing out the 4's. We'll find the ways to write 505 as squares and multiply each component by the square root of 4. True confession time: I'm adapting this from work by Dario Alejandro Alpern, whose fsquares program I ported to Gnu GMP. We can find the ways to write 505 by finding the way to write its factors and using the fact that (a^2+b^2) (A^2+B^2) = (aA+bB)^2 + (aB-bA)^2 We'll find the solutions in positive integers, and then convert each such solution (a,b) into 4 solutions, {(a,b)(-a,b)(a,-b)(-a,-b)}. We know that every prime congruent to 1 mod 4 is the sum of two squares. For 5 this is easy: 5 = 1^1 + 2^2 and that's all. For 101 it's not hard either: 101=1^2+10^2, and this confirms that you are pitching us your softest softball. A quick check vs {49, 64, 81} confirms that this is the only way to write 101. Again, this is just the positive/positive solutions. So we have: (1^2+2^2)(1^2+10^2) = (1+20)^2 + (10-2)^2, which gives us: 505 = 21^2 + 8^2 2020 = 2*21^2 + 2*8^2 = 4*441 + 4*64 = 1764 + 256 and consequently 3 other solutions, 2020 = (-42)^2 + (16)^2 = (42)^2+(-16)^2 = (-42)^2+(-16)^2. We also have: (1^2+(-2)^2)(1^2+10^2) = (1-20)^2 + (10+2)^2 = (-19)^2 + 12^2 = 361 + 144 Thus we find 8 ways of writing 2020: 2020 = 42^2+16^2 = -42^2+16^2 = 42^2+-16^2 = -42^2+-16^2 = 19^2+12^2 = -19^2+12^2 = 19^2+-12^2 = -19^2+-12^2 According to the formula, there must be 8 other solutions out there, but I'm not seeing the permutation of these equations that gives them.
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  1386. Extremely cool! Made me realize there’s a very practical strategy for handling these problems that, in my opinion, beats the pure programming AND pure math approach: programming this sort of thing correctly is nontrivial, and even with a smart implementation isn’t that fast (my quick and dirty python version takes about 20 seconds for $2500 - I just remembered I only bothered with 1, 5, 10, and 25 cent coins). The pure math approach to obtain a closed form expression through generating functions is mechanical and straightforward (and beautiful) but incredibly unwieldy for generating functions of this size. Even if you use Mathematica to do the algebra, you still face the problem of convincing yourself you didn’t make a mistake in writing the code! My approach, inspired by your video, is to simply observe that since the generating function is a rational function, its coefficients will be exponentials times polynomials in the index (and I think a bit more reasoning gets you to the fact that if you only extract coefficients with the same residue mod 100, they’ll just be polynomials (as you show for residue 0, of course)). For N coins, this polynomial will be of degree N-1. So pages and pages of computer algebra, in the end, are just to get N rational numbers! A much more direct way is to write a piece of code that is just barely fast enough to deliver N values of the function, and then solve the resulting linear system for the coefficients of the polynomial! No need for super slick iterative implementations, which will top out way before a million of dollars anyway; no need for huge amounts of algebra. Fast, easy, and delivers an essentially O(1) algorithm for a huge number of problems (ie. anything with a rational generating function, so anything produced by a finite state machine)!
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  1429. I've been recently working on Tower of Hanoi animations for my channel and in the process discovered some of the stuff mentioned in the video, for example the algorithm to solve Tower of Hanoi without recursion by moving the smallest disk every second turn. I also proved why it works. Answer to challenge questions: Direction to move the smallest disk is: if (n is even) then Right else Left That's because to move (N)-tower in some direction, you first have to move (N-1)-tower in the opposite direction, so the direction to move the smallest disk changes every time and it starts with Left for N=1 disk The number of turns is (as mentioned in the video) equal to the number of reachable states, which is = 3^n, because: there are 'n' disks, each disk can be placed in one of 3 towers, so there are 3^n valid states. Each valid state is reachable with a standard recursive algorithm, so there are 3^n reachable states. Another interesting puzzle for you: given a number of disks (N) and a number of turns (T), how do you quickly find the state of all disks in the optimal solution of N disks after making T turns? I had to solve this puzzle while making my Tower of Hanoi animations, so I can instantly preview my animation at any moment in time (instead of re-playing it from the start), which becomes increasingly important with several-hour animations. Check out my channel for these animations: I've already published the shorter ones and longer once, including 10-hour 16-disk solution animation, coming soon:)
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  1564. Hallo Burkard, Ich schreibe Dir einfach mal auf Deutsch, weil mir das ein bisschen einfacher fällt. Ich möchte Dir einfach mal Danke sagen! Dein Video zur quadratischen Reziprozität hat mich zum ersten Mal mit der modularen Arithmetik in Kontakt gebracht und, was soll ich sagen, jetzt bin ich im JugendForscht-Wettbewerb (in der Altersparte "Schüler Experimentieren", weil ich noch etwas jünger bin...) Landessieger in Berlin mit einem Projekt aus dem Fachbereich Mathematik, inspiriert durch Dich! Falls es Dich interessiert, die Preisverleihung ist auf dem Youtube-Kanal des innoCampus der TU Berlin zu finden. (Es ist ja alles digital gewesen; ich bin ab 40:24). Es ist wirklich schön und auch irgendwie beeindruckend, was für ein Projekt aus dieser Inspiration und diesem tollen Video entstanden ist. Ich weiß noch, als ich diesen ersten "Wow!"-Moment hatte und bis nach Mitternacht wach war, um die ersten Ansätze auszuarbeiten. Ich finde es überwältigend, was die Mathematik bisher alles Großartiges bereitgehalten hat, was ich dann entdecken durfte, und das alles nur Dank Dir! Ich bin mittlerweile sogar soweit, dass wieder einen Bogen zur quadratischen Reziprozität selbst bekommen habe! ;) Aber auch generell möchte ich Dir einfach mal danken für Deine tollen Videos, die mir durch diese schöne Mathematik immer wieder den Tag versüßen, wenn nicht sogar der Höhepunkt sind! Sollte Dich vielleicht interessieren, was ich so gemacht habe, kannst Du mich gerne kontaktieren! Viele Grüße und noch einen wunderschönen Tag, Tim
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  1573. Hero's formula for the area of a triangle is one of those things introduced as a curiosity in a math textbook way back in middle school that I never really got a handle on. To a sixth grader, that is an impressively complex formula for an ancient to have discovered, and no proof was forthcoming. Through high school I saw it a couple more times, always in passing, a sort of neat oddity that seems compact but rarely gets used in practice. It was really neat to see an intuitive proof and motivation after all these years. That said, it doesn't exactly seem useful. Even if you somehow do know the lengths of a triangle but not its angles, this formula is still not the fastest way to find the area. Typically, if you're doing this by hand, you will either have a table of square roots (for Hero's method) or of logs and logs of sines (for the law of sines method). That method is still faster, because you skip all the multiplication steps. If you want to compute the area of the triangle with a computer, you can use Newton's method to get the square root, and I assume Heron's formula really is faster. But the thing is, you basically never know all the side lengths of a triangle (and nothing else) before trying to find its area. Rather, you probably have coordinates, in which case the shoelace formula is by far the fastest. So like, what is this formula actually good for? Is it just a novelty like the quartic formula? If it's never used, then no, I don't think it should be taught as part of a standard curriculum. The brief mentions in books for interested students are probably enough. There is so much I want to add to the math curriculum, and the curriculum is already packed as it is. It's hard to justify cramming in more random formulas to teach, prove, and memorize. (BTW, although the phrase "Heron's formula" is seen pretty often in mathematical texts, in pretty much all other contexts in English, "Hero" is far more common than "Heron." Similarly, we say "Plato" rather than "Platon." The practice of Latinizing ancient Greek names is pretty standard in English. In classical Latin, the nominative singular would be "HERO," and the genitive singular would be "HERONIS." Since the Latin stem is still Heron-, the English adjective would be "Heronic" rather than "Heroic." Again, that's like the adjective "Platonic" rather than "Platoic. Other examples include "Pluto/Plutonic" and "Apollo/Apollonic." Admittedly, there are some exceptions, like the word "gnomon.")
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  1654. Nice work! Gives me some flashbacks to Paul Lockhart's lovely book Measurement, which is like the one textbook that I, as a soon-to-be math teacher, actually really like; of course, I can't base my teaching on it because of these soul-crushing standardized requirements and tests, though (I guess I can at least use it for inspiration). One of my favorite related proofs when it comes to understanding the logarithm based on the graph of the function defined by f(x)=1/x that could have been mentioned, though, is a lovely visual argument that the alternating harmonic series sums to the natural logarithm of two. You restrict yourself to the little region from 1 to 2 and ponder the area under the graph – it's the natural logarithm of two, of course, but you can also approximate it with rectangles. If you use a 1x1 square, you're overshooting a lot, but you can remedy that by taking a rectangle out horizontally to remove the second half, where the overcounting is most egregious. You then add the smallest rectangle you can that still covers the desired area in that region, which has a height of 1/(3/2)=2/3 and a length of 1/2, so its area is a third. I think most of you will know where this is going, right? Our estimation, which still overcounts but is much more accurate, is 1 - 1/2 + 1/3. Now, we remove the second half of the first rectangle (area 1/4) and add a better fit back in that has an area of 1/5, and we also remove the second half of the second big rectangle we have (area 1/6) to get a better approximation with an area of 1/7. And so on and so forth – it's not too hard to convince yourself that this approximation strategy does indeed amount amount to evaluating partial sums of the alternating harmonic series, and the argument shows that they approach the logarithm of 2. Isn't that beautiful, even if it's tricky to describe everything just with words? This is exactly the kind of thing I want to teach eventually.
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  1692. Taking a shot at the "Multiplication Partition" problem at the end... Empirically, the numbers seem to follow the pattern F(2n), where F(n) is the Fibonacci function. So the pattern is every-other Fibonacci number, henceforth called the "Skiponacci sequence". I will prove the hypothesis that the sum of products generated from partitions of the number n follows the Skiponacci sequence. Here, S(n) is the Skiponacci function, and P(n) is the partition-product-sum function. Firstly, analizing the stacks of equations, we can utilize the "recursion" mentioned early in the video. Looking at the example given for n=4, we see that the products are: 4 3 * 1 1 * 3 2 * 2 2 * 1 * 1 1 * 2 * 1 1 * 1 * 2 1 * 1 * 1 * 1 We focus on the products ending with "1", and removing the "* 1" we see: 3 2 * 1 1 * 2 1 * 1 * 1 Oh look, its the products for n=3 ! Looking at the products ending with "2" and removing it: 2 1 * 1 Its the products for n=2. The pattern is becoming clearer. Looking at the remaining products: 4 1 * 3 The "1 * 3" clearly follows the pattern, being 3 times the n=1 product. The 4 sticks out, but for now its easy to write it off as just "n". The final formula for this pattern is: P(n) = P(n-1) + 2P(n-2) + ... + (n-1)P(1) + n The reason for this formula makes sense. The "recursion" is because the partition products that are multiplied by 2 are made from partitions that are 2 less than n. Hence the "+2" in the partition list becoming a "*2", giving us the 2*P(n-2) part of the equation. Now how does this fit into the Skiponacci sequence? It becomes clearer if we write the terms out into a pyramid. For instance, for n=5, the answer is the sum of these numbers. Each row has n copies of P(n-1), except the last row, which is written as n "1"s, for the "+n" term. 21 8 8 3 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 To aid in making sense of this, here is the pyramid for n=4: 8 3 3 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Notice the recursion? The n=5 pyramid contains the n=4, just with the extra diagonal. This makes sense, since every time n increases by 1, each P(n-k) factor's coefficient increases by 1 (and the "+n" term increases by 1, naturally). All this means that this equation holds: P(n) - P(n-1) = P(n-1) + P(n-2) + ... + P(1) + 1. This gives us a neater equation for P(n) if you add P(n-1) to both sides, but for now lets test our hypothesis and replace P(n) with S(n). S(n) - S(n-1) = S(n-1) + S(n-2) + ... + S(1) + 1 The left side is easy to simplify, because S(n) = F(2n) S(n) - S(n-1) F(2n) - F(2n-2) F(2n-1) For the right side, we can recursively replace the two right-most elements with another fibonacci number, until we are left with F(2n-1) S(n-1) + S(n-2) + ... + S(1) + 1 F(2n-2) + F(2n-4) + ... + F(4) + F(2) + F(1) F(2n-2) + F(2n-4) + ... + F(6) + F(4) + F(3) F(2n-2) + F(2n-4) + ... + F(8) + F(6) + F(5) ... F(2n-2) + F(2n-4) + F(2n-5) F(2n-2) + F(2n-3) F(2n-1) This leaves us with this equation, which is obviously true: F(2n-1) = F(2n-1) Therefore, because we were able to replace P(n) with S(n) in our equation, we showed that P(n) = S(n). QED. Also I did the math and found that the general equation for S(n) and P(n): S(n) = 2/sqrt(5) * sinh(2 * ln((1+sqrt(5))/2) * n) This is a long way of saying I think the next number is 55 :)
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  1693. Congrats on 100 videos, mate. You really made it as a maths educator and content creator on YouTube, and I'm looking forward to seeing you do even better in the future. Hope you blow our minds again with each video you make That said... CHALLENGES! 11:18 I have no army of middle school minions but I am still ready to attack Same reasoning as before. This time we start with the second paraboloid, the one carved from the cylinder. Makes the maths a little easier. The paraboloid has radius R and height H. Cutting it at height h will leave a ring with outer radius R and inner radius r. The paraboloid is modeled after a parabola y=ax^2, and so we should have H = aR^2 and h = ar^2. So it's possible to solve for r and get r = Rsqrt(h/H). The ring thus has area pi * R^2 - pi * R^2 * h/H, or piR^2(1-h/H). The first paraboloid should also have that area. Thus its radius should be Rsqrt(1-h/H). Now the inverted paraboloid can be modeled by another quadratic, but the important takeaways are H = bR^2 and H - h = br^2. Solving for r this time gives Rsqrt(1-h/H), exactly the same as what was predicted by the circles area argument. Or you can use integrals. Whatever floats your boat 17:42 The layers of the onion look almost like surface areas stuck together. That can be written as: V(R) = the integral from 0 to R of SA(r)dr By FTC1, we can also write this as V'(R) = SA(R) And so the derivative of the volume is the surface area. Even in 420 dimensions. 18:04 The base of the cylinder has area piR^2. The height is 2R, and the circumference is 2piR. In total, the surface area of the cylinder is 6piR. With the surface area of the sphere being 4piR, the ratio of the surface areas of the two shapes really is 3:2.
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  1694. I am absolutely trash at math but when I stumbled across a numericology video on 369 and they explained the theory I immediately commented that it was clearly because we use a base ten system. For instance base 14 was used in the Middle East for a long time. Based on counting the inner pads of the fingers, I am a behavioral scientist and Buddhist philosopher so I am well studied but I really am horrible at math. I can’t even do basic division if the numbers go into the hundreds without taking a long time. It was actually obvious because from a behavioral psychological point of view when you have something people can’t explain the culprit is most often a blind spot in your paradigm. Anytime we attempt to build a thought model of what we believe is true we create a type of tunnel vision because our imagination becomes constrained by your base assumptions. If you think a certain action is always bad you will be blind to anything good that comes from that action and when it’s pointed out you won’t be readily able to accept the evidence, it literally requires an individual to rewrite the most fundamental assumptions about life because our thoughts are like cards stacked upon each-other our conclusions come as a result of previous conclusions, as this happens our ability to recognize anything new or aberrant narrows and our ability to explain concepts becomes reliant upon what we have “figured out” thus creating a blindness in our personal philosophy. Most people assume that math is always a base ten system. But there are as many systems as there are numbers and historically societies that weren’t connected to the western tradition came up with novel calculation systems. Most notably the Indians who were the first to recognize the need for the number zero. Incendently this comes from Hindu philosophy which posited emptiness or void and singularity or oneness. Both of these concepts are represented by the number zero which like consciousness can be posited and observed in its function but cannot be qualified or countrified as it is immaterial like space. Anyways from a purely psychological perspective the answer was obvious I didn’t need to comprehend the math to see that this was merely a blind spot made by a false axiom. Rant about Ether vs Space: I will add that Tesla was correct about ether. When people talk about bending space they are talking about bending ether. Space is not a medium and cannot be acted upon it is a potentiality for expansion and position. If something bends in a given position that which is bent must rest within something. Without a medium the distance between all things would be zero, the fact that we can imagine folding space means that something which has qualities is being manipulated, however actual void ness, emptiness, the expanse of nothing allows for all laws of physics to be unobstructed and to function within their own constraints. If space was not completely void there would be no possibility for anything to bend, 0 the absence of all is what gives freedom to bend the ether. When you bend ether that fold is still a location in space and relies upon the void as a platform for existence. Nothing has freedom or capability to be anything without a complete void to appear within. This void exists outside of time and was present as the externality of the singularity but void or emptiness is not a thing and so it is completely logically coherent to say nothing existed outside the singularity because emptiness has no qualities and cannot be proven to exist. It can only be pointed out as being the function of unobstructed freedom of material phenomena. If space was void you could not bend it, it has qualities and so it cannot be said to be the expanse which allowed for the Big Bang. Without this freedom of nothingness and infinite indescribable void the singularity would never have been able to exspand as it’s size would be fixed. Even the diagrams of bending space require the illustration of grid planes which automatically describes a medium which has properties. True space ie the infinite void has no properties it is the absence of properties and can only be proven to exist because the bending of space happens within a free unobstructing openness. It a real shame because I suspect this distinction is likely an incredible resource for computation. Again if there was no ether than all of existence would not have any measurable distance, distance in space is a fixed property which is measurable as space/time, but something has to exist that undergirds and existed before space time in order to allow it to come into being and to exist in an exspansive way. Nothingness is that thing. Without the absence of all nothing can expand out into infinity. Without void everything would be permanently constrained. Space itself is a constraint as it is governed by the speed of light. Space what I would call ether acts on objects because it is a medium with properties subject to the qualities of other objects like planets whose gravity actually warps it. True void is inert and has no properties it cannot be affected or measured it is merely the absence of all qualities which allows for qualities to come into being without being constrained. Can you comprehend emptiness or is your paradigm constrained by preconceived notions of what your science books have told you. I have made a coherent argument that we are missing a fundamental piece of reality in our current scientific paradigm. Exists in math as zero it is already proven to exist in math and many higher calculations cannot even be done without zero proving that as a model of reality zero is acknowledged as indispensable to model our reality. ... yet we ignore emptiness. We already know zero cannot be affected by any other number zero cannot be divided subtracted or multiplied because it is an absence of qualities. It can be added to because it is inert and unobstructed and so it is a vessel which is truly and absolutely infinite in its allowance for qualities to exist within it. We already know all this yet our current models of physics refuse to acknowledge that what we call space has qualities that occupy the infinite void as a basis for all. Without void we cannot posit existence we understand that two things cannot occupy the same place which means for anything to occupy any space there must be a void which does not obstruct position, characteristics or behavior. As I said if what we call space can bend it is bending within emptiness. There must be a basis for reality which is without qualities or existence would be constrained. If what we call space was truly the basis for reality it wouldn’t have qualities. If space was not a medium there would be no time or distance to travel between objects, you could move from earth to Mars in an instant because there would be nothing to travel through. Traveling through something means it is a medium especially if it has coherent properties, it’s qualities are consistent not chaotic meaning like atoms it has a particular measurable property which can be counted on to act and behave in a uniform manner. Having inherent measurable qualities means it exists as an object. Please don’t reply if you’re just going to quote text book physics as my entire point is to point out something missing in the current assumed model of reality. We know the number zero is real functional and vital yet we deny it’s actual existence in the world despite our model of reality requiring zero to be calculated. The absence of everything came before anything this should be obvious as only an absence of things allows for an unobstructed exspansion. Without an absence of qualities qualities could not come into being without being affected by constraints. If there was no external void the singularity would have nothing to expand to. This is important for positing the big crush as there may be a limit to this ether or space time, it may have an elastic property where it can only stretch so far, space time may be capable of thinning metaphorically like a gas perhaps creating a gravitational vacuum. Just like as gas thins it creates a vacuum which can literally implode or crush objects. Once we see space as a medium this new paradigm means measuring the qualities of this ether may actually allow for incredible breakthroughs. I believe humanity is constraining it’s progress by resting on a preconceived notion that space/time is the undergirding foundation of reality when In my mind you always must have nothing before you have something. If
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  1975. I've got a proof for the last problem distinct from ilonachan's very elegant sudoku-style proof, inasfar as grid-puzzle proofs can be distinct, giving the same fully general 2n*2m result. I) Any solution must have an "Alternating Orientation" (equivalent solution under reflection over a diagonal or 90° rotation) where each row alternates between two colors, and the sequence of rows alternates between two such pairs of colors. II) a. For an even number of columns, an alternating orientation of a solution must have different colors for the first and last columns in each row. b. For an even number of rows, an alternating orientation trivially has different colors between the first and last rows. c. The colors in each of the four corners of an alternating orientation must be different. III) Reflection along the diagonal or rotation by 90° preserves both the property of being a solution, and the span of the colors in the corners. (Trivial) Proof of I: Ia) If the first row alternated over a pair, the second row must contain the complement pair; and that row must therefore alternate, as, trivially, two adjacent cells cannot share a color, and there are only two colors in the row. Inductively, each successive row must also contain the complement pair to the previous row, and must itself alternate. This satisfies the definition of an alternating orientation. Suppose there is a solution which does not have an alternating orientation. By Ia, the first row does not alternate over a pair. Without loss of generality, it can be shown that the following configurations remain: i. abcd[...] ii. abcb[...] iii. abac[...] Where [...] represents any sequence of successive terms, for grids of more than 4 columns. We shall first assume configurations i and ii, together. Both configuration i and ii start with the same three colors, and we may say they both satisfy of configuration 'abcx[...],' where 'x' is undefined. As no steps of the remaining steps do not depend on cells in columns 3 or later for this orientation, configurations will be denoted with only the first three color values. Cell (2, 2) is part of both the top-left 2x2 square, and the top-center 2x2 square. It must therefore not be the same color as the first two or second two cells in row 1. As all three colors are represented in those three cells, cell (2, 2) must be the 4th color. Cells (1, 2) and (3, 2) are now determined, as they each have 3 colored neighbors. In particular, row two is now in a configuration of 'cda.' This configuration is isomorphic to configurations i. or ii. of row one. Therefore, each row can be determined inductively. In particular, row three is also in a configuration 'abc,' which is the same as row one. If we look at column 1, we find it must alternate between colors 'a' and 'c.' This means that if we reflect over the diagonal, we must have a solution where the first row, equivalent to the original solution's first column, must alternate over the pair of colors 'a' and 'c.' This satisfies the condition of Ia), and so this reflected solution must be an alternating orientation. This means the original solution had an alternating orientation, contradicting the premise for configurations i and ii. We may use a similar argument for configuration iii, but shifting our perspective over by 1 column. We first remove column one from the solution, and observe that we now have a configuration isomorphic to configuration i or ii. As removing a column does not alter the property of being a solution, as it does not affect 2x2 grids not intersecting that column, the argumentation for configurations i/ii follow. If we take the resultant alternating orientation, and then reflect this solution vertically so that the top row is now at the bottom, we may notice that our new top row is also alternating, as given by Ia. If we try to replace an appropriately reoriented row at the bottom corresponding to the column we removed here, the solution must still satisfy Ia, as the new top row is not changed. The property of having an alternating orientation is trivially preserved under horizontal and vertical reflections. As such, this re-appended row must still be alternating, and our overall solution still has some alternating orientation. I: QED QED (Sorry for the haphazard alterations to the proof of I, but I realized I needed to generalize it to get the full 2n*2m result, but that proved non-trivial.)
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  1987. Excellent work! And yes, you should be wary of discontinuous "logarithms" lurking in the dark :) The axiom of choice guarantees their existence (but that also explains why you can't find any of them - because they're non-constructive). Essentially, the multiplicative group of positive real numbers forms a vector space over Q (taking vector addition to be multiplication and scalar multiplication to be exponentiation). So the axiom of choice guarantees that there is a Hamel basis for the multiplicative group of positive real numbers over Q, and we can assume e is part of that basis. Similarly, the additive group of all real numbers is a vector space over Q, so the axiom of choice guarantees us a Hamel basis here, too, which we can assume contains 1. (Note that we can prove the dimension of both of these spaces over Q is |R|.) Then we can create a function which maps the Hamel basis from the multiplicative positive real numbers to the Hamel basis of the additive real numbers, choosing e to get mapped to 1, and choosing it so that some basis element d of the multiplicative positive reals is mapped to something other than ln(d). But a function defined from a basis of one vector space to elements of another vector space defines a unique linear transformation between the two vector spaces. Let's call this linear transformation L. We can then check by the definition of these vector spaces and the definition of linear transformations that it has all the algebraic properties of the natural logarithm. If a and b are two positive real numbers, then L(ab) = L(a)+L(b) because vector addition in the domain is actual multiplication but vector addition in the codomain is actual addition. For any positive real number a and any rational number c, we have L(a^c) = cL(a) since a^c is scalar multiplication of a by c in the domain but scalar multiplication in the codomain is actual multiplication. We also have L(1) = 0 since 1 and 0 are the identities respectively, and L(e) = 1 by choice. So we have the "properties" of a logarithm that you were able to pin down without continuity. But we have L(d) = something other than ln(d), so L is not the same thing as the natural log. (As an added bonus, I made sure L is bijective too!) But your argument pretty much shows that ln(x) is completely pinned down by ln(e) = 1, ln(ab) = ln(a)+ln(b) for all real positive numbers a and b, and continuity. So the only conclusion here is that this nasty L function cannot be continuous. And since it has the other properties of logarithms, it is in some sense a discontinuous "natural log".
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  2185. I have a special relationship to Ptomelys Inequality because it's the first theorem where I came up with an original and beautiful proof of it. And it was actually because of you :D Back then, I was re-watching some video about proofs of Pythagoras and one of the proofs involved scaling the original triangle by the factors a, b and c and then rearranging the parts in a clever way. You can do the same thing with Ptolemys Inquality! Take any quadrilateral with side lengths a, A, b, B, c, C like in your video but make sure that c is "in between" a and b. Take three copies of the quadrilateral and scale it by a, b and c respectively. Notice that two of your copies now have a side with length ab and diagonals ac and bc respectively. Join them on the side ab. Now notice that you can fit the third copy perfectly on the diagonals of the other two, as the third copy has two side lengths ac and bc too and the angle also matches. Put it in place and look carefully. You will have formed a triangle with side lengths aA, bB and cC. Ptolemys Inquality therefore follows. And the equality will hold exactly when the point lands exactly on the cC side. Which will happen exactly when the opposite angles of the original quadrilateral add up to 180 degrees which is exactly the case when it is circular. qed I stand by my opinion that this proof is absolutely marvelous and the best proof of Ptolemys Inequality ever. And it's perfect for an animation so if you ever want to show it, I absolutely allow you to do so :)
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  2322. I like the Pigeons at the Olympiad proof best. For the challenge at the end of chapter 3: Because every repeating decimal can be written in the form (x+y)/10^n + x/10^2n + x/10^3n ... for some integers x,n,y. We can factor out x, and we can rewrite: 1/10^n + 1/10^2n + 1/10^3n ... as 1/(10^n - 1) Noticing that when n is an integer, 10^n and (10^n)-1 are integers, we have the sum of two rationals, y/10^n + x/(10^n - 1) which is therefore rational, QED. For the challenge at the end of chapter 6: 7 integers from 1 to 100 such that no 2 different collections from that set have the same sum: {1,2,4,8,16,32,64} This is easily seen by putting the sum in binary form. Each bit in the sum is set by exactly one number from the collection, so if collection A sets a given bit, disjoint collection B lacks the only element that can set it. For the think-about-it pause at the beginning of chapter 7, I found a much harder and clunkier solution: There are 2*3*4 = 48 permutation of 4 cards. That's almost enough to pick out 1 card among 52 - if only somebody removed 4 cards from the deck. But somebody did! The mystery card can't be any of the 4 cards you passed to your assistant, which leaves 48. So we place some natural ordering on the 4 cards. Say, suit is the primary sort key and number/jack/queen/king is the secondary. We also number the permutations of 4 items - so we have a table that gives us a bijection from a permutation like C D A B to/from a unique index. And we number the remaining cards in the deck. Same idea: force an ordering, make a table. Then we look up that card in the deck table, look up that index in the permutations, and arrange the cards in that permutation. Our assistant does the reverse: Sees what permutation we handed him, looks up its index, constructs a deck table for the ordered deck minus the 4 cards he sees, looks up the permutation index in that, and announces that card as his answer. Ta daah, except that we need to build large tables on the fly. On the plus side, we can do it for any mystery card, we don't have to choose it ourselves from among 5 cards.
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  2371. 30:07 Minimum number of moves for 9 disk and 4 pegs (I think): 41 (^.^). You explained how to divide the disks into 3 superdisks for 8 disks but not for 9. So, just for fun, I tried every possible division in a very inefficient c++ code. I found that you can solve optimally in 41 moves if you divide the disks into 3 superdisks of 2, 3 and 4 disks (from top to down); also dividing them into 4 superdisks of 1, 1, 3 and 4; 1, 2, 2 and 4; AND 1, 2, 3 and 3. I didn't check if these divisions provide different solutions (Challenge for anybody?), but my guess is that, at least, the 3 and 4 superdisk divisions are different optimal solutions. Calculation (hopefully) explained: Assume that you got to solve for 8 disks and 4 pegs, and you divide the 8 disks into 3 superdisks of 1, 3 and 4 disks (from top to down, like Mathologer did). Also note that f(n)=2^n-1 is the optimal number of moves to solve n disks and 3 pegs. Then, (hopefully) it's easy to see that the number of moves, following the Mathologer path, is equal to f(1)+f(3)+f(1)+f(4)+f(1)+f(3)+f(1)=4f(1)+2f(3)+f(4)=2^2 f(1)+2^1 f(3)+2^0 f(4). Note that the arguments of the f's add up to the 8 disks and also note the decreasing powers of 2. (hopefully) it's easy to see that, for n disks, 4 pegs and m superdisks of a1, a2, ..., am disks, such that a1+a2+...+am=n, the resulting number of moves is equal to 2^(m-1)f(a1)+2^(m-2)f(a2)+...+2^0 f(am). For the code, I simply apply this formula to every possible division of the 9 disks into superdisks. I cycle through the possible divisions in a very inefficient and lazy way: I go though all possible lists of between 1 and 9 elements with all possible values between 1 and 9, checking if the accumulation of the elements add up to 9. Seeing the formula, it's easy to see that it's not worth it to check superdisk divisions that are not in decreasing amounts of disks, but whatever. Here's the code for anyone interested: #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <numeric>//accumulate algorithm using namespace std; int pow(int b,int e){//b to the power of e with e being a non negative integer int ans=1; for(int i=0;i<e;i++)ans*=b; return ans; } int h3(int n){//optimal number of moves with 3 pegs return pow(2,n)-1; } bool operator!=(vector<int>v0,vector<int>v1){//how to compare vectors if(v0.size()!=v1.size())return 1; for(size_t i=0;i<v0.size();i++) if(v0[i]!=v1[i])return 1; return 0; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int N=9;//total amount of disks for(int i=1;i<=N;i++){//i is the number of superdisks used in this attempts vector<int>v(i,1),v0=v;//v holds how many disk in each superdisk, v0 is the initial attempt do{ if(accumulate(v.begin(),v.end(),0)==N){//the total amount of disks has to be N int m=0;//total number of moves in this attempt for(size_t i=0;i<v.size();i++){ m+=pow(2,i)*h3(v[i]); cout<<"2^"<<i<<" f("<<v[i]<<")+"; } cout<<'\b'<<'='<<m<<endl; } for(size_t i=0;i<v.size();i++)//cycle through all possible v's if(v[i]==9)v[i]=1; else{++v[i];break;} } while(v!=v0);//all possible attempts has been searched when v loops back to v0 } return 0; } Enjoy. (^.^)
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  2427. I asked ChatGPT to flesh out your idea Title: Pentagon’s Shadow Synopsis: In the heart of a bustling city, a series of seemingly random crimes baffle the local police. Each crime scene forms a perfect pentagon, its vertices marked by the locations of heinous acts: arson, robbery, assault, kidnapping, and murder. The pattern is unmistakable, but its origin and purpose remain elusive. Main Characters: 1. Detective Laura Mathis: A seasoned detective with a sharp mind for patterns and an unconventional approach to solving crimes. She has a background in mathematics, which becomes pivotal in cracking the case. 2. Dr. Petr Novák: A reclusive mathematician known for his work on complex geometric theorems. His breakthrough, known as “Petr’s Miracle,” describes the transformation and center-shifting of pentagons, a theorem that holds the key to the mystery. 3. Lucas Grey: A brilliant but troubled mathematician turned criminal mastermind. Obsessed with proving his intellectual superiority, he uses Petr’s Miracle to orchestrate his crimes. 4. Captain James O’Neil: Laura’s superior, a pragmatic and seasoned officer who struggles to understand Laura’s mathematical approach but trusts her instincts. Plot: Act 1: The Initial Crime Scenes • Scene 1: Detective Mathis is called to a grisly murder scene, the fifth in a series of crimes that seem unrelated except for one peculiar detail: each crime scene location, when connected, forms a perfect pentagon. • Scene 2: Laura revisits each crime scene, mapping out the pentagon. She notices subtle clues suggesting the involvement of higher mathematics. • Scene 3: Captain O’Neil is skeptical but authorizes Laura to pursue her hunch. Laura reaches out to her old professor, Dr. Petr Novák, who explains his theorem and how it could apply to the crimes. Act 2: Uncovering the Pattern • Scene 4: Laura discovers that each pentagon transforms according to Petr’s Miracle, with the center point and vertices shifting in a predictable manner. • Scene 5: The team realizes that each new pentagon is formed based on the previous crime’s locations, creating a series of nested pentagons. • Scene 6: Laura and Dr. Novák work together to predict the next vertices. They identify a pattern and pinpoint the next potential crime scene. Act 3: The Chase • Scene 7: As they rush to the predicted location, they narrowly miss catching Lucas Grey, who leaves behind a taunting message: “Catch me if you can.” • Scene 8: With the stakes higher, Laura delves into Lucas’s background and discovers his motivation: a twisted game to prove his genius. • Scene 9: A cat-and-mouse game ensues, with Lucas always one step ahead, using Petr’s theorem to stay elusive. Act 4: The Final Showdown • Scene 10: Laura finally deciphers the ultimate goal of Lucas’s geometric game – the final pentagon points to a significant, symbolic location in the city. • Scene 11: A high-stakes confrontation at the final predicted crime scene. Laura uses her knowledge of the theorem to outmaneuver Lucas, predicting his moves. • Scene 12: Lucas is captured, but not before a tense standoff where he reveals his admiration for Laura’s intellect, acknowledging her as a worthy opponent. Epilogue: Resolution • Scene 13: The city breathes a sigh of relief as Lucas is put behind bars. Laura reflects on the case, realizing that her unique skills in mathematics have not only caught a criminal but also saved lives. • Scene 14: Dr. Novák publishes a paper on the practical application of his theorem, crediting Laura for her intuitive leaps and deductive prowess. Themes: • Intellectual Duel: The battle of wits between Laura and Lucas showcases the power of intellect and strategy. • Math in the Real World: The plot highlights how abstract mathematical concepts can have real-world applications, even in crime-solving. • Moral Ambiguity: Lucas’s genius is both his strength and downfall, raising questions about the ethics of using intellect for harmful purposes. Style: The narrative is a blend of crime drama and intellectual thriller, with detailed explanations of the mathematical concepts woven seamlessly into the plot. The tension escalates with each new crime, keeping readers on the edge of their seats, while the unique use of geometry adds a fresh twist to the genre. Potential for Adaptation: “Pentagon’s Shadow” is ripe for adaptation into a TV series or film, with its intricate plot, compelling characters, and the unique blend of crime-solving and mathematics. Each episode could explore a new facet of the theorem and its application, culminating in a thrilling final showdown.
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  2430. This entire process of an “adding ears algorithm,” along with the 4 “basis pentagons” for every pentagon, along with the importance of directional adding of ears, along with the points being described by complex numbers, etc etc all seems like any polygon can be described using some sort of complex polynomial where each power term refers to a different “basis polygon” that when rotated and scaled in some way then added with all the others can form any polynomial. This has some interesting implications as it would mean that an n-sided polygon can be described using a polynomial of nth degree where the roots of the polynomial correspond to the vertices of the polygon, and would also be another demonstration as to why one of the “basis pentagons/polygons” goes to 0 + 0i when the ear adding algorithm is applied as it is just taking the derivative of some complex polynomial where that power goes to zero, and also showing that when enough “derivatives” are taken of the polygon it becomes regular then to a point like going to some constant then to zero. This could also imply the existence of polygons described by power series, like a circle or any continuous loop being described as an infinite degree polynomial which could also indicate the power series forms for sine and cosine and e^(ix) = cos(x) + i sin(x) describes more than just a cool identity but also a polynomial describing a circle as a polygon in the complex plane. I wonder how this could be applied in terms of sequences to differential equations like the fibioci sequence and sequences being described by polynomials through taking “discrete derivatives” of the sequence the have the first numbers be coefficients into a formula which forms a polynomial describing the sequence, could there be a way to term a sequence into a polynomial into a complex polygon, or find complex sequences using complex polynomials and then complex polygons which shape could describe some property and maybe get into topology? Sorry I’m rambling lol Has this been studied at all or does anyone know if this is a valid way to understand polygons? I noticed it again and again throughout the video and thought it was very interesting but I don’t think I have the skill to explore it on my own quite yet
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  2458. That table at 37:31 really shows how outstanding 355/113 is as an approximation of pi. It is astonishingly good for a three digit denominator. . Here's a question: Is there any other famous irrational number that has a rational approximation with a three digit denominator that is anywhere near as good as this one? To decide this, we need to think about making some measure of the "goodness" of a rational approximation (q) of an irrational number (r). To start with, we should calculate the proportional difference, (r-q)/r. We then realize that we must take absolute values to ignore the sign of the difference. We could then take the reciprocal so we can express this amount as being accurate to within 1 part in N, where N=|r/(r-q)|. (I use N here to indicate nearness of the approximation.) If we care only for how accurate the approximation is, this is a good measure and the higher the value of N, the better the approximation. But, that would have us just choosing bigger and bigger denominators as "better" when really some preference should be made for smaller denominators as these are generally found sooner and with less effort than bigger denominators (and perhaps smaller denominators are easier to remember). So, we could apply a penalty for larger denominators by dividing the score, N, by the denominator, d. But is this a sufficient penalty? Perhaps a better measure is to divide by the square of the denominator. I will settle on having a "rational approximation goodness score" calculated as: RAGS = | r / (r-q) | / d² Here are some scores (N and RAGS) for approximations of π (I have used the fractions given in the table at 37:31) Rational N-score RAGS 3/1 22 22.188 13/4 29 1.811 16/5 54 2.152 19/6 125 3.480 22/7 2,484 50.704 179/57 2,530 0.779 201/64 3,247 0.793 223/71 4,202 0.834 245/78 5,541 0.911 267/85 7,549 1.045 289/92 10,897 1.287 311/99 17,599 1.796 333/106 37,751 3.360 355/113 11,776,666 922.286 52,163/16,604 11,801,038 0.043 Note: The fractions given by the convergents from the continued fraction representation of π are 3/1, 22/7, 333/106, 355/113 and then the following: Rational N-score RAGS 103,993/33,102 5,436,310,128 4.961 104,348/33,215 9,473,241,406 8.587 208,341/66,317 25,675,763,649 5.838 312,689/99,532 107,797,908,602 10.881 Here are some scores for rational approximations of √2 Note: The sequence is given by a/b → (a+2b)/(a+b) Rational N-score RAGS 3/2 16 4.121 7/5 99 3.980 17/12 576 4.003 41/29 3,363 3.999 99/70 19,600 4.000 239/169 114,243 4.000 577/408 665,857 4.000 1,393/985 3,880,899 4.000 3,363/2,378 22,619,537 4.000 8,119/5,741 131,836,323 4.000 19,601/13,860 768,398,423 4.000 It is interesting that while the nearness (N-score) increases at a rate that converges towards 3+2√2, the denominator increases at a rate that converges towards 1+√2. Since (1+√2)² = 3+2√2, the adjusted score (RAGS) converges to a constant (=4) as the sequence progresses. Here are some scores (N and RAGS) for approximations of the golden ratio φ: Rational N-score RAGS-score 3/2 14 3.427 5/3 33 3.697 8/5 90 3.589 13/8 232 3.629 21/13 611 3.614 34/21 1,596 3.620 55/34 4,182 3.617 89/55 10,945 3.618 144/89 28,658 3.618 233/144 75,024 3.618 377/233 196,419 3.618 610/377 514,228 3.618 987/610 1,346,270 3.618 1,597/987 3,524,577 3.618 2,584/1,597 9,227,466 3.618 4,181/2,584 24,157,816 3.618 6,765/4,181 63,245,986 3.618 10,946/6,765 165,580,143 3.618 In the case of approximations of φ the improvement in nearness (N-score) occurs at a rate that converges towards 1+φ = φ². Then, as the denominator increases at a rate that converges to φ, the RAGS-score also converges to a constant which happens to be 2+φ = 1+ φ². The approximations of φ and √2 are generated by formulae that create convergence to fixed multiples for increases in the denominator. There is also a fixed rate of convergence towards the rational, as evidenced by the continued fraction representations of φ and √2 being 1+1/(1+1/(1+1/(1+1/… and 1+1/(2+1/(2+1/(2+1/… respectively. I think it is fair that this scoring system gives these formulaic fractions equal standing. It is also worth noting that the RAGS for φ is less than for √2, which is consistent with φ being the "more irrational" number that is harder to approximate. I have also calculated the N-scores and RAGS for √3 = 1+1/(1+1/(2+1/(1+1/(2+1/(1+1/(2+1/… The continued fraction pattern is 1,2,1,2,… It shouldn’t be a surprise that the N-scores increase at a rate that converges to 2+√3 while the RAGS converges to an alternating sequence of 3 and 6, with the higher RAGS coinciding with the approximations that are slightly greater than √3. This is because the approximations that are greater than √3 have a proportionately smaller increase in denominator than those that are less that √3 – i.e. if you go from above √3 to below √3, the denominator has increased by more than the numerator to obtain a smaller fraction. The scoring for the approximations of π is certainly more interesting since the continued fractions are not in a fixed pattern and so the quality of the approximations relative to denominator as indicated by the RAGS varies considerably. And just to come back to it: How good is the 355/113 approximation for π? It is the absolute stand-out amongst those shown here. [Note - these calculations were done "quick and dirty" in a spreadsheet and so the values are likely inaccurate past 10 digits.]
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  2513. Big fan of Heron's formula here, so I may go on a bit. Here in the US, New York State, under the "Regents" math curriculum, in the late 1960's, we did learn Heron's formula. We were not required to memorize the derivation, but it was in the textbook. Decades later, I decided to test my algebraic chops, and try to derive it with the only clue I remember from the book, that it relied on factoring the difference of two squares. If you drop an altitude on one of the sides, you can solve for the altitude and one of the unknown segments on the base simultaneously, using the Pythagorean Theorem. Mathologer takes a shortcut by using the law of cosines, but my method is how you get the law of cosines as well (and you can get rid of the fraction in the Mathologer's version with some convenient cancellations). But once I was there, and I got the formula knowing what I was looking for, I thought of four justifications for "discovering" Heron's formula instead of calling it a day having a formula for the area in terms of the sides: 1) it lacks symmetry. There is nothing special about any side, other than that you chose one to drop an altitude on; 2) it's pretty nasty to calculate from. Many of us have probably calculated nastier ones, but we can do better; 3) it is badly scaled. You end up raising numbers to the fourth power, which usually results in something large, then subtracting them, leading to truncation or round-off errors if you don't keep a lot of decimal places (I realize Heron wasn't thinking about floating point calculations. Heck, he didn't even have a decimal system) 4) it's not obvious from the original formula, at least to me, that your area isn't going to turn out to be the square root of a negative number. If you expand the trinomial and collect terms, you do get something symmetrical, but all the other objections remain. That might tell you that, since expanding didn't work out very well, maybe the opposite--factoring--is the solution. In addition to factoring the difference of two squares, twice, at one point you have to collect some terms and recognize it as the square of a binomial. It's all quite pretty. But it's 100%, algebra, none of the geometric insight of this video. With the final formula, in addition to being much prettier and easier to calculate from (if the need arises which, truthfully, it rarely does) you can see at once that for a legitimate triangle, no one side being longer than the sum of the other two (or equivalently, no side being longer than the semi-perimeter) you'll never get a negative number and moreover, if a "triangle"s one side is exactly equal to the sum of the other two it has zero area, as expected.
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  2691. For the puzzle at 11:37, I was too tired yesterday to get it, but now that I had time today I gave it another shot. My square was defined as: ┌──┬──┐ I defined the layout of any pythag.. triple as:. │B1│B2│ X^2 + Y^2 = Z^2 . ├──┼──┤ . │B4│B3│ . └──┴──┘ . I started out pretty standard with the main three equations of: B1*B4 = X 2*B2*B3 = Y B1*B3 + B2*B4 = Z I also included these: B1 + B2 = B3 B2 + B3 = B4 To define the innercircle, I used r_i to denote its radius. The equation is then: r_i = B1*B2 I started by creating an equation to find r_i. To do this, I used the slope of the hypotenuse (Y/X) to solve for an angle, divide it by two, and convert it back to a slope. This gives a slope which bisects the angle XZ. The equation is: y=tan(1/2 * arctan(Y/X)) * (x+X) (my origin is placed at the corner XY so x+X places the lines origin at the corner XZ) Using trig identities, namley half angle identity and inverse trig identities, I could simplify the expression: tan(1/2 * arctan(Y/X)) => (sin(arctan(Y/X))) / (1 + cos(arctan(Y/X))) => (((Y/X)/sqrt[1 + (Y/X)^2]) / (1 + (1/sqrt[1 + (Y/X)^2])) => (Y/X) / (sqrt[1 + (Y/X)^2] + 1) => Y / (sqrt[X^2 + Y^2] + X) This means that the equation is: y = (Y / (sqrt[X^2 + Y^2] + X))(x+X) Which is our equation for the first bisector line. Since the angle XY is 90°, it has a bisector with a slope of -1. This results in the equations: y=-x Setting them equal to find the centre of the incircle results in a simplified equation of: x = -XY / (X + Y + sqrt[X^2 + Y^2])) Since X^2 + Y^2 = Z^2, this becomes: x = -XY / (X + Y + Z)) OR: r_i = (XY) / (X+Y+Z) Plugging in the values, we get: r_i = 36 since r_i = B1*B2 = 36, this means B1 = 36/B2. plugging into the equation: B1 + B2 = B3 yields: 36/B2 + B2 = B3 => 36 = B2*B3 - B2^2 using Y = 2*B2*B3 = 104, we know B2*B3 = 52. 36 = 52 - B2^2 => B2^2 = 52-36 => B2 = 4. So, using B2*B3 = 52 we find: B3 = 13 Since B1 + B2 = B3: B1 + 4 = 13 Or: B1 = 9 Since B2 + B3 = B4: 4 + 13 = B4 Or: B4 = 17 To Conclude, my guess as to the numbers in the square are: ┌──┬──┐ │ 9│ 4│ ├──┼──┤ │17│13│ └──┴──┘
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  2749. Hi there, Mathologer. Really nice explanations -- thank you. One method that I've used to convince my calculus students that expressions are indeterminate is to give them, or have them try to construct, functions with the specified limits which show that these indeterminate forms could be "reasonably" assigned any number that they like. For example, for a given nonzero complex number w, the functions f(z)=wz and g(z)=z give rise to a quotient f(z)/g(z) which takes on the indeterminate form 0/0 as z approaches 0. But of course the limit is w, so this gives a "convincing" argument that 0/0=w. Note that f(z) and g(z) can be taken to be holomorphic functions, and one can run similar arguments for most of the other indeterminate forms. Edit 12/6 : Incorrect reasoning in the following paragraph. Please see my reply to this comment. One curious thing I've encountered recently is that I run into problems in applying this process to the indeterminate 0^0. For example, it is easy to make an argument that 0^0=1 -- simply take f(z)=z and g(z)=0. Then f(z)^g(z) clearly approaches 1 as z approaches 0. But suppose I sought to make a convincing argument that 0^0=w for a given complex w using this method. I seek two (holomorphic, say) functions f(z) and g(z) such that f(z) and g(z) both approach 0 as z approaches 0, but f(z)^g(z) approaches w. By L'Hopital's rule, I determine that a necessary condition for this to happen is that the limit as z approaches 0 of the expression [(f'(z)/g'(z))(g(z)/f(z))](-g(z)) should equal ln(w). But by L'Hopital's rule the two quotients f'(z)/g'(z) and g(z)/f(z) must be the reciprocals of each other and therefore the limit of their product must be 1, which of course forces w=1 (since g(z) approaches 0 as z approaches 0). Thus, in order to have f(z) and g(z) behave like I want them to, at least one of them must not be differentiable at 0. Can you comment to what extent the indeterminate form 0^0 is different from the others?
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  2758. 2:25 - "Why? Who knows..." and that's why there's this expression "talmudic reasoning" or "talmudic problems" - meaning obscure and convoluted (and often illogical) way of thinking using all sort of arbitrary "laws" and "precedents" - or bizarre/ weird interpretations. Why so? Who knows, or as Tevye the Milkman has said: You may ask, how did this tradition start? I'll tell you! - I don't know... ;-) 11:00 - the creditors may suffer "the same loss" in absolute numbers, but certainly not in terms of "relative loss". Someone who can lend $300 (i.e. is capable of giving such a loan) must, obviously, have MORE than that amount (say/ assume $600 of cash) - while someone who loaned $100 might be much poorer (say, $200 of ready money at most) - so the same AMOUNT of lost money (say, $50) would hurt the "$200 guy" much more than this "$600 chap". But then you never really know what is their financial situation/ status - it could be just that this "$300 sucker" loaned all he had, while this "$100 scrooge" holds $10,000 - but he's a scrooge and a penny pincher, and that's why he shelled out a mere $100. And since this part of equation is beyond any reasonable judgement of any "inheritance court" it should be left out and never taken into consideration, as this "talmudic do-gooders" approach/ reasoning can actually create worse and less fair outcome for the debtors. Which only goes to show "why this talmudic reasoning expression exists". When it's the time to light up Shabbat candle? "When one can see stars on the night sky" (i.e. they become visible) goes one (of probably gazillion other interpretations. So when a first star appears, it's only ONE star, not "stars", hence it doesn't count ("einmal ist keinmal" as Germans say - or "once/ single occurrence is no occurrence/ it doesn't count"). So, when the SECOND star appears it's still only a "single" star, as the first one "doesn't count, so only after a third star appears you can say there are TWO stars, so it is "stars" (not "a star"), so there you go. I mean, "there you can light up a Shabbat candle". Simple, no? ;--)
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  2795. solution to the ending puzzle (49:52) (SPOILERS!!!) the solution as indicated by others is the odd-indexed fibonnaci numbers if you count f(0) = f(1) = 1. with f(n) being the n-th fibonacci number. here is my proof: first ill mark p(n) = the n-th term in this series, p(1) = 1. and for convenience, p(0) = 1 as well. as shown in the beginning of the video, every way to break up n into a sum of integers can be expressed as n-1 "spaces" between n boxes, when each way of closing some of the spaces is a unique integer sum of n. this means that you can express every integer sum of n with a vector with n-1 terms, all either 0 or 1 . example: take n=5 and the vector 1101. this represents 3 + 2 = 5. now i will organize the vectors in a row by their values in binary. meaning that for example for n=3, the 4 vectors will be ordered as such: 00 01 10 11 and the corresponding sums like this: 1+1+1 = 3 1+2 = 3 2+1 = 3 3 = 3 now for n, there will be 2^(n-1) rows in this kind of ordering. the first half of the rows all have 0 as their left most term, meaning all sums look like 1+ integer sum of n-1. and since the rest of the vector goes from 00...0 to 11...1 this covers every integer sum of n-1. meaning that in the first half of the rows there are exactly, all integer sums of n-1 with an added 1 on the left. that 1 does'nt change the product of the rest of the numbers, hence the sum of the product of each row is just p(n-1). now ill look at the second part, and again at its first half. this time all vectors start with a 1,0 and the rest corresponds to an integer sum of n-2. now every row looks like 2+ integer sum of n-2. meaning that the sum of the product of those rows is 2*p(n-2). continuing like this by induction we get: P(n) = sum from k=1 to n-1 of k*p(n-k)+n , p(1) = 1. first, f(2*1-1) = f(1) = 1. ill now show that p(n) = f(2n-1) satisfies this recurrence relation. meaning that i need to show that: f(2n-1) = [sum from k=1 to n-1 of k*f(2(n-k)-1)] +n proof by induction: (n=2) base: [sum from k=1 to 1 of k*f(2(2-k)-1) ]+2 = f(1) +2 = 1+2 = 3 = f(3). step : ill assume the reccurence holds up to n. now ill show it for n+1: first, f(2n) = f(2n-1) + f(2n-2) = f(2n-1) + f(2n-3) +f(2n-4) = ... = f(2n-1) + f(2n-3) +...+ f(1) +f(0). (*) now : f(2n+1) = f(2n) + f(2n-1) = = f(2n-1) + f(2n-3) + f(2n-5) +...+ f(1) + 1 by (*) + f(2n-3) + 2f(2n-5) +...+ (n-1)*f(1) + n by induction. = f(2n-1) + 2f(2n-3) + 3f(2n-5) +...+ n*f(1) +n+1 = [sum from k = 1 to n of k*f(2(n+1-k)-1)] + n+1. hence for every n, p(n) = f(2n-1).
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  2889. Using a short java program I wrote it looks like once you get past the initial 13 terms to overshoot pi and subtract it takes between 8 and 9 additional terms to overshoot pi again and then you subtract one term. Additionally, it alternates adding 8 and 9 terms before you subtract one term (you always only need to subtract 1 term) but eventually theres 2 9 terms intervals and the pattern continues. What is interesting is the number of "intervals of intervals" aka the number of times this alternating takes place before you get 2 9's varies initially but settles on the pattern 37, 39,39,39, then back to 37. However, every now and then theres 4 39's before going back to 37. It looks like this pattern has a pattern as well. I suspect these inner patterns continue on due to the irrationality of pi and there is never a "straightening out" of the pattern. Edit: I am trying out different values for what you want the series to converge to and it's pretty interesting. First of all, for every number you only ever need to subtract one term to get the current value to go below the desired value. Every integer you try the number of terms before it overshoots generates a pattern with little deviations in it. Im thinking the pattern of the little deviations have their own patterns, and this extends infinitely. Is anyone aware of someone coming across this and looking into it more? I'm thinking it would be fascinating to generate a "3d graph" of desired values vs how the series behaves but I need to get to my computer to try this out. I'll let you guys know what I find
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  2904. It heartening, hilarious, and humbling to see the various people reporting "I discovered this when I was much younger" (or a variation on it). I am fascinated by math and terrible at it. So I was 26, did everything by hand without a calculator (not because I'm hardcore, but because that was all I had), and twice ran into worsening and worsening polynomials to try to deal with, before I finally came up with a one-line formula that spat out the polynomial for a sequence of numbers. In this attempt, I started over twice and I don't know what I did differently the third time (when I say I started over twice, I mean over months of hand calculations). I certainly had no names for the sums of sums, but I did see Pascal's triangle buried in it, was multiplying the falling "n choose k" statements by coefficients derived from differences of differences. I was using horizontal rows, rather than diagonals though. Watching the video, I can't put together the relationship between what's happening here and what I did exactly; this is obviously much more straightforward and sensible, but both end with elegantly simple statements. I have a really ugly Excel spread sheet (the "function finder") that crunches a list of numbers into a polynomial. The background calculations are just as ugly as my stumbling attempts, but it gives you the correct polynomial. Just to show the prettiness, if you have a sequence of four numbers [A, B, C, D] that generates a degree 3 polynomial (variable n>3), the not-simplified formula that kicks out is (I think): [-(n)(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)]/3! * [A/(n) - 3B/(n-1) + 3C(n-2) - D/(n-3)]
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  2910. The magic square proof is brilliant! To generalize it, i turned the tiles' numbers into coordinates for a n*n square, T=x+(y-1)*n, 1<=x, y<=n, T->(x,y) is a one-to-one map therefor we have (1,1) to (n,n). 1->(1,1), 2->(2,1) etc. arrange the tiles into the big tilted square as the video shows, for every tile T, the only tiles that share a common x or y coordinate are the ones that share the same diagonal with T Thus, every tile on the same horizontal/vertical with T must have different x and y coordinate (that is the first part) Now we define horizontal and vertical distance, which is the number of horizontal and vertical steps required to move a tile to another square (empty or another tile) As the video says, when creating the magic square, all tiles outside moves exactly n steps to it's destination, which gives us a distance (horizontal or vertical) of n However, as there are only n squares on a diagonal, the maximum (horizontal or vertical) distance between T and any tiles that share the same x or y coordinate <=n-1 (that is the second part) Thus, on the final magic square, all tiles on the same horizontal (vertical) with T must have different x and y coordinates this holds for every tile T so every horizontal and vertical sum= n(n+1)/2+(n(n+1)/2-1)*n=n(n^2+1)/2 which is correct the diagonal sums are n*(1+n)/2 (same x coordinate (1+n)/2) + (n(n+1)/2-1)*n (y coordinate 1-n) and n(n+1)/2 (x coordinate 1-n) + n*((1+n)/2-1)*n) (same y coordinate (1+n)/2) this proves that it is a magic square My wording is really bad, but this is the proof in the video
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  2990. The "windscreen wiper" method can be used to prove the same result on a sphere, which by extension also proves the 2D case as well. 1)Draw a great circle around a sphere, marking two points at random on this circle. 2) Mark a third point at random, but not on the same great circle, and connect this to the first two points around two new great circles. This creates a spherical triangle. 3)Rotate the sphere so that the "north pole" lies within the triangle in such a way that the northernmost points on the three great circles all lie at the same latitude. 4)Draw the "whiskers" by extending the sides of the triangle as shown in the video, following the great circles in each case. 5)The great circles all have exactly the same radius of curvature at every point, so the windscreen wiper method can be used to rotate and tilt any one of the extended sides around each vertex to bring it into superposition over the adjacent side. Three rotation and tilts brings a side back to its original position, but pointing the opposite direction, just as in the video. This proves that the three extended sides are the same length, and the northernmost points are the exact midpoints of each arc. 6)Starting at the northernmost point of any of the three great circles and measuring the same arc in each direction takes you to two points which lie at the same latitude. Since the three arcs are all the same length, all six end points must lie at the same latitude. Ta dah. 7)Let the radius of the sphere tend to infinity. The surface of the sphere tends to a plane surface, and the original Euclidean result follows directly. Ta dah!
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  3280. I wonder what the 3 dimensional equivalent. Like if we work in reverse, we would have all our linesrly independent eigen polyhedra(whatever that entails), and we can have some linear transforms that map each of the miscellaneous polyhedra to 0. I havent finished watching the video, but if im to guess, the eigenpolygons are all the possible orderings of vertices that can be attained from connecting the points of the regular polygon by skipping n of the vertices(i.e original clockwise pentagram attained by connecting without skipping, clocksise pentagram attained by skipping 1 at a time, anticlockwise pentagram skips 2 at a time, anticlockwise pentagon skips 3 at a time). This doesnt translate well to 3d, but I can guess that this specific process of forming eigenpolygons is just one of many possible basis polygons, and that there might be another basis that translates well to 3d. If we dont care much for clenliness, we can just have a non linearly independent basis by having every single permutation of our vertices, modulo rotations, which certainly spans all of our possible polygons just the same, but I dont think this will work. As in the original basis was isotropic(i think thats the right word), we could send eigenpolygon components to 0 by adding ears on, which was a process that had no preference of starting vertice, and the action was identical for each pair of vertices, but if we wish to send arbitrary permutations of vertices to 0, I'd have to guess this isnt going to turn out the same. Which makes me wonder, is there a convenient basis for polyhedra, where an isotropic process will send each eigenpolyhedron to 0, and the basis spans all of our polyehdra. I think i would be comfortable in saying it isnt possible. But now that I've taken another step back im beginning to think its possible again. Instead of thinking of a process that relied on an explicit ordering of the vertices, why dont we think of all the possible choices faces of polyhedra that are rotationally invariant, that way an action on a single surface is the same for all surfaces. I still dont think there is enough of them to form a basis here. Additionally, the process of adding ears was linear in the 2d case, but would it be in the 3d case? I suppose we can always modify our action so that it must be linear, we have plenty of degrees of freedo. there(takes 3 vertices as input, must be isotropic, must be linear, and must send a specific face to 0, feels like we have the freedom here). And now that i think about it the eigenpolyhedra dont even have to be nice whole surfaces, we only care that all the faces are identical, and its rotationally invaiant, and that it forms a basis. The more I think about it the more I feel its possible, though whether our 3d analogue of adding ears is natural in any way, thats debatable. But now im doubting myself again and thinking its impossible, and my reasoning is now impossible to explain.
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  3379. Christmas glasses: The squares numbered 20r and 20g must be part of their outer 2x3 "arms", or they'd leave a 5-square board that can't be tiled. These two 2x3 sections can be tiled 3 ways each. So far: 3 x 3 = 9 ways to tile the outer two rectangles. Then, the red and green squares numbered '8' and '15' can only be part of 4 different pairings (e.g. 8r and 15g must both be paired to their left or their right), otherwise they'd isolate a section with an odd number of squares. Call these 4 pairings First, Outside, Inside, Last (like FOIL). EG: 'First' = both sets of pairs made with the left neighbour. Using 'First': Working left-to-right, we get a 2x3 grid (3 ways), then 13g-9r and 14g-10r must be paired, then another 2x3 grid (3 ways), then 17r-7g and 16r-6g must be paired, then a 2x2 grid (2 ways). This multiplies to a total of 3x3x2 = 18 ways. Using 'Outside': Working left-to-right, we get the same 2x3 grid (3 ways), then 13g-9r and 14g-10r must be paired, leaving a 2x2 grid in the middle (2 ways) and a 2x3 grid on the right (3 ways). This makes a total of 3x2x3 = 18 ways. Using 'Inside': 17g-7r and 16g-6r must be paired, leaving a 2x2 grid to the left (2 ways); likewise, 17r-7g and 16r-6g must pair, leaving a 2x2 grid to their right (2 ways). This all leaves a 2x4 grid in the middle (5 ways). Total: 2x2x5 = 20 ways. Using 'Last': Same as 'First', but mirrored. Total: 18 ways. Multiplying all this together gives: 3 x 3 x (18 + 18 + 20 + 18) = 9 x 74 = 666 Truly a 'beast' of a solution.
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  3591. Due to the PHP, you'll always have a pair with the same suit. Put one of those two cards in the front, so you get the suit. The same does not work for the value of the card, though, so we need another plan... At this point, you have 3 cards of encoding to figure out which of the 12 remaining cards (same digit, not the card that encodes the suit). My first idea for encoding the digit of the card was to use the order of the cards. Since the first card is necessarily at the front, you only have three cards, or 3x2x1 permutations to work with, which isn't enough. My second idea was to use high-low order of the cards, which could use the first card for encoding. This gets to 2^3 or 8 different values, still not enough. In the second idea, though, an edge case popped out where the card indicating the suit is the highest or the lowest value, and can't be "higher or lower" than the next. That can be solved by giving different suits higher values (i.e. diamonds are "lower" than hearts, etc. However, the edge case does point out that we can choose which of the cards to take, which gives us another "digit" to encode with. For clarity, we'll call them the numbers 1 through 13. So how do we use those digits? If you always take the lower card, you get a worst case of 1, which still gives you 12 possibilities, which is not less than the 8 we need. What if we always take the card closer to 7, though? Well, 7 is the worst case, and give us 12 cards to dig through still. 6 would give you 1-5, 8-13, so 11 I gave up here and watched the video. Makes sense.
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  3658. Aww, this is sweet!... I knew it, that this clever way of dealing with the coin change problem must have been done already! I've played with this coin change problem recently, deliberetely not knowing about backtracking approach or dynamic programming - I just wanted to see what can I discover on my own (later on, I found that I did not do anything radically new, but I was pleased anyway). I'd loved, of course, to find some formula for it, but theoretical approach was not my goal back then, I just wanted to make my computer to calculate the damn thing. I was not particularly interested in calculating the minimum number of coins (of certain denominations) that add up to a given amount of money, but only in the number of ways such amount of money can be presented. I was also not very keen in writing computer program to do the job, just to make a table, filled with formulae that are calculating everything. The reason for all this is that for many years dealing with various problems I developed for myself a lazy approach to programming - part of the work (a huge chunk of it, if possible) can be done in table forms, another part - with much simpler program, if writing such a program is inevitable, otherwise custom functions are good enough in many cases (I mean, in Excel spreadsheets). So, practising such "programming" style helped me to learn how to compartmentalise any heuristic problem in smaller, more "edible" problems. Firstly, I made a counter that gives me the answer, just for verifying the results (for relatively small amount of money, of course; for bigger ones it has to count for hours). Easy-peasy. The analysis of the problem resulted in following table: 1. The number of columns = the number of 'n' distinct positive integer values (whole numbers), arranged in increasing order as c(1) through c(n); oddly, the results do appear in the leftmost column, associated with the smaller coin in the set, c(1). The set of coins may be whichever one wants {1; 2; 5; 10; 20; 50; 100;...}, {1; 2; 5; 10; 25; 50; 100;...}, or some exotic: {3; 7; 12; 19}, {1; 2; 3; 5; 7; 11; 13; 17; 19;...}. One even can play dumb and use a set as {6; 9; 18; 30}, but the table will give back zeroes for all odd and not divisible by 3 sums anyway. 2. The number of rows is not limited above, with increment of 1 cent per row. Naturally, you should have 100 rows if you want to calculate the function for 1 dollar, or 250 rows if the target is 2 dollars and 50 cents. 3. In every cell [x, y] there is a formula that does one simple thing (for the leftmost column is slightly different) - it calculates the ways 'x' dollars can be presented by coins with nominal value >= c(y): cell[x, y] = sum( cell[x - c(y), j] ) for j = y to n / for 1st column: cell[x, 1] = cell[x-1, 1] + sum( cell[x, j] ) for j = 2 to n. This is all, now every row will give you the corresponding number, for example, in the sequence A000008 (it is only for set [1, 2, 5, 10], doesn't include coins of 20, 50, 100 cents). If we use all coins and banknotes up to 20$ , {1; 2; 5; 10; 20; 50; 100; 200; 500; 1000; 2000}, the sum $20,21 will be presented in 30,399,653,516 ways. Clearly my counter will outlive me here ;-). Now on, the hypothetical program is easy to be written and if one looks closer a little bit on the method, will see that this program will have to memorise maximum n*c(n) numbers to do its job (or even less, if you are greedy), for arbitrary large amount of money. I was delighted that this problem has such simple practical solution, but thankfully, here I learned about the heavy, theoretical stuff, and they are also so elegant. The practical approach has some similarity with Pascal's triangle, so, no wonder that binomial coefficients do appear here and there.
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  3726. squares or 'cubes'? THough as that honestly brings an impressively complicated line of thinking if applied towards dimensional logics. Though as a for a gride, the number of squares is for a flat grid. is for each to points where it's height & length are the same, I am sure this is poorly worded, but assuming a grid of 6x6, there are 36 points, & a shrinking list of pairs, & of that list x&y must be the same. (though a rough concept is in (0,0) (x,y) where y is 6x, 6y and the limit of grid size 6 squared, & the number of squares would be [Grid size=>]6 - Z[<=Largest value of X or Y] = Squares of (x,y) pair [where Z the number of highest value of the number pairs for that point, that is valid] & is repeated for each valid number pair. -GS = Grid size (6x6 = 6, etc) -- that said... the list of valid points would be [GS -1]^2 = VL (valid list of pairs that'd produce atleast 1 square) y = [1, .... GS-1] (independent from) x = [1, .... GS-1] (treated as a range/array, that's lowest value is 1& no repeating numbers, sharing the same numbers - being a square) - The number of squares for that grid would be ---- initial Z value is 0 ---- for each x, do for each y, [GS - {X or Y, Highest value} = tmp] & z = tmp + z Though for a cuboid structure.. it would that on the total assumption of cubic forms (GS^3)*z = TZ (total Z) appologizes for the half programmatic thought on how it'd work. Not entirely sure how it's be written down, but that's how I thought. This is of course, assuming 'squares' equal sides & flat.
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  3858. 14:23 I got 666. Hahaha, what's the obsession with the number of the Beast? (^.^) I'm not 100% sure I got this right however. Here are the matrices I got: Arbitrary incremental number assignment of the 2 sets of colored tiles. 1 1 2 0 0 2 3 3 0 0 4 4 5 0 0 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 0 10 10 11 11 0 12 12 13 13 14 14 0 0 0 15 15 16 0 17 16 18 17 0 18 19 19 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 20 20 21 0 0 21 22 22 0 0 0 0 0 Magical 22x22 matrix (rows are green and columns are red). 1 1 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 i 0 0 0 1 Determinant of last matrix: 666 (positive real) I actually calculated everything with this c++ code I wrote: #include <iostream> #include <vector> using namespace std; struct Ci{ int re,im; Ci():re(0),im(0){} Ci(const Ci&z):re(z.re),im(z.im){} Ci(int n):re(n),im(0){} Ci(int a,int b):re(a),im(b){} Ci operator+(Ci z){return Ci(re+z.re,im+z.im);} Ci operator*(Ci z){return Ci(re*z.re-im*z.im,re*z.im+im*z.re);} bool operator!=(Ci z){return re!=z.re||im!=z.im;} };/*complex integer*/ ostream&operator<<(ostream&out,Ci z){ if(z.im) if(z.re) if(z.im==1)out<<z.re<<'+'<<'i'; else out<<z.re<<'+'<<z.im<<'i'; else if(z.im==1)out<<'i'; else out<<z.im<<'i'; else out<<z.re; return out; }/*complex integer console print*/ static Ci i=Ci(0,1);/*i constant*/ int pow(int b,int e){ int ans=1; for(;e>0;--e)ans*=b; return ans; }/*integer power*/ void minor(vector<vector<Ci>>&ans,const vector<vector<Ci>>&m,int r,int c){ int h=m.size(),w=m[0].size();/*height and width of matrix m*/ ans.resize(h-1,vector<Ci>(w-1)); for(int k=0;k<h-1;k++) for(int j=0;j<w-1;j++) if(k<r) if(j<c)ans[k][j]=m[k][j]; else ans[k][j]=m[k][j+1]; else if(j<c)ans[k][j]=m[k+1][j]; else ans[k][j]=m[k+1][j+1]; }/*minor matrix*/ Ci det(vector<vector<Ci>>m){ if(m.size()==1)return m[0][0]; Ci ans=0; for(size_t k=0;k<m.size();k++){ vector<vector<Ci>>m0; minor(m0,m,0,k); if(m[0][k]!=0)ans=ans+m[0][k]*pow(-1,k)*det(m0); } return ans; }/*determinant*/ int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { vector<vector<char>>m0={ {1,1,1,0,0,1,1,1,0,0,1,1,1,0,0,1,1,1}, {1,1,1,1,1,1,0,1,1,1,1,0,1,1,1,1,1,1}, {0,0,0,1,1,1,0,1,1,1,1,0,1,1,1,0,0,0}, {0,0,0,0,0,1,1,1,0,0,1,1,1,0,0,0,0,0} };/*sunglass*/ char r=0,g=0;/*numbers to assign to tiles*/ for(int k=0;k<4;k++) for(int j=0;j<18;j++) if(m0[k][j]){ if((k+j)%2)m0[k][j]=++g; else m0[k][j]=++r; }/*number assignation to red and green tiles independently of each other.*/ vector<vector<Ci>>m1(r,vector<Ci>(g,0));/*final matrix*/ for(int k=0;k<4;k++) for(int j=0;j<17;j++) if(m0[k][j]&&m0[k][j+1]){ if((k+j)%2)m1[m0[k][j]-1][m0[k][j+1]-1]=1; else m1[m0[k][j+1]-1][m0[k][j]-1]=1; }/*1's of the final matrix*/ for(int k=0;k<3;k++) for(int j=0;j<18;j++) if(m0[k][j]&&m0[k+1][j]){ if((k+j)%2)m1[m0[k][j]-1][m0[k+1][j]-1]=i; else m1[m0[k+1][j]-1][m0[k][j]-1]=i; }/*i's of the final matrix*/ for(int k=0;k<4;k++){ for(int j=0;j<18;j++){ cout<<int(m0[k][j])<<' '; if(m0[k][j]<10)cout<<" "; } cout<<endl; }cout<<endl;/*glass print*/ for(int k=0;k<r;k++){ for(int j=0;j<g;j++) cout<<m1[k][j]<<" "; cout<<endl; }cout<<endl;/*final matrix print*/ cout<<det(m1)<<endl; return 0; } (^.^)
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  3900. 30:38 This is really poorly written so please don't judge but I threw this javascript code together. It runs in nodejs and contains all of the steps, but only shows the completed result in the console at the moment. If I have the time I might try to make a webpage around it and make it a lot nicer, or if anyone else wants to feel free to steal any of this code if it helps function getRandom(num = 2){ return Math.floor(Math.random() * num); } class ArcticCircle { constructor(num = 1){ this.size = num; this.grid = new Array(num * num * 4); for(let i = 0; i < this.size*2; i++){ let offset = this.getLineOffset(i); let length = this.getLineLength(i); for(let j = 0; j < this.size*2; j++){ if((j >= offset) && (j < offset + length)){ this.grid[this.getIndex(j, i)] = "_"; }else{ this.grid[this.getIndex(j, i)] = " "; } } } } getIndex(x, y){ if(x >= (this.size*2) || y >= (this.size*2)) return -1; if(x < 0 || y < 0) return -1; return y * (this.size * 2) + x; } toGridCoords(line, column){ let nl = (line < this.size) ? line : (this.size*2) - line - 1; let offset = this.size - nl - 1; return [line, offset + column]; } getLineOffset(line){ let nl = (line < this.size) ? line : (this.size*2) - line - 1; return this.size - nl - 1; } getLineLength(line){ let nl = (line < this.size) ? line : (this.size*2) - line - 1; return nl*2 + 2; } print(offset){ for(let i = 0; i < this.size*2; i++){ let s = ""; let padding = ""; for(let j = 0; j < offset; j++)padding+=" "; for(let j = 0; j < this.size*2; j++){ let tile = this.grid[this.getIndex(j, i)]; let c = "\x1b[0m"; if(tile == '>') c = "\x1b[41m\x1b[36m"; if(tile == '<') c = "\x1b[43m\x1b[34m"; if(tile == '^') c = "\x1b[44m\x1b[33m"; if(tile == 'v') c = "\x1b[42m\x1b[35m"; s += c + tile + " "; } console.log(padding + s + "\x1b[0m" + padding + "."); } //console.log(this); } fill(){ for(let i = 0; i < this.size*2; i++){ for(let j = 0; j < this.size*2; j++){ if(this.grid[this.getIndex(i, j)] == "_"){ let tiles = (getRandom(2)) ? ['^', '^', 'v', 'v'] : ['<', '>', '<', '>']; this.grid[this.getIndex(i+0,j+0)] = tiles[0]; this.grid[this.getIndex(i+1,j+0)] = tiles[1]; this.grid[this.getIndex(i+0,j+1)] = tiles[2]; this.grid[this.getIndex(i+1,j+1)] = tiles[3]; } } } } static GenerateNew(){ let circle = new ArcticCircle(); circle.fill(); return circle; } static EmbiggenCircle(oldCircle = this.GenerateNew()){ let circle = new ArcticCircle(oldCircle.size + 1); for(let i = 0; i < oldCircle.size*2; i++){ for(let j = 0; j < oldCircle.size*2; j++){ let newI = i+1; let newJ = j+1; let tile = oldCircle.grid[oldCircle.getIndex(i, j)]; if(tile == "v"){ if(oldCircle.grid[oldCircle.getIndex(i, j+1)] != "^"){ circle.grid[circle.getIndex(newI, newJ+1)] = "v"; } } if(tile == "^"){ if(oldCircle.grid[oldCircle.getIndex(i, j-1)] != "v"){ circle.grid[circle.getIndex(newI, newJ-1)] = "^"; } } if(tile == ">"){ if(oldCircle.grid[oldCircle.getIndex(i+1, j)] != "<"){ circle.grid[circle.getIndex(newI+1, newJ)] = ">"; } } if(tile == "<"){ if(oldCircle.grid[oldCircle.getIndex(i-1, j)] != ">"){ circle.grid[circle.getIndex(newI-1, newJ)] = "<"; } } } } circle.fill(); return circle; } } let circle = ArcticCircle.GenerateNew(); let iterations = 32; for(let i = 0; i < iterations; i++){ circle = ArcticCircle.EmbiggenCircle(circle); console.log(); circle.print(iterations-i); }
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  3970. Great video! :) Your Simple is King remark reminds me of how the divide-and-average method for calculating square roots is occasionally explained to a layman audience via incorrect reasoning in educational websites or modules. The very first “explanation” I came across in 7th Grade is if the initial guess x you pick to calculate √N is too small, N/x would be too large & vise versa. Then they erroneously infer that since √N is between x & N/x, the average must be closer to √N than both x & N/x [this doesn't immediately follow because 2 is between 1 & 1000 but I think we can all agree that (1+1000)/2 = 500.5 is a worse approximation for 2 than 1] This lead me to grow a dislike for the method especially since the first legit explanation I heard of later on involved the Newton-Raphson method which I think is rather overkill for most smart 7th Graders. So, eventually I found an explanation that I think is way better using the AM-GM inequality & basic algebra. Essentially, after applying the procedure of divide & average once, we end up with a new guess which is greater than √N which would then get closer and closer while stay greater than √N. So, it must converge to some limit L which, once we know it exists, we can solve for algebraically & get that L does in fact equal √N :) The claims in the previous paragraph's first sentence can be proven with the AM-GM inequality & algebra, while the only bit that requires calculus to rigorously justify would be the rather intuitive fact used in the next statement that a decreasing sequence with a finite lower bound must have a limit. I'm a bit saddened that the simple & valid mostly algebraic explanation is still way less popular than the simplified but blatantly flawed “explanation” that I heard in 7th Grade. Still, I'm glad people like you show simplified explanations without having to risk their validity! :)
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  3986. Today, I was writing a solution for the question in Michael Penn’s video by using this method and I did not know that you did this video (great video by the way), what a nice coincidence! If I were doing a youtube channel on math, this (something similar to that) could have been one of my first videos. I have been using this for more than 15 years already in action. So I love using Lagrange Interpolation/ Newton’s Divided Differences and use it in places where people don’t expect to use, as a number theorist, it’s brother Chinese Remainder Theorem is something I like too. Once, when I was in high school I wrote down first 25 primes in a big poster to see their pattern looking at the consecutive differences of primes and tryed to find a pattern for prime numbers. Later on, I figured that primes do not satisfy any polynomial. By the way, there is Gilbreath Conjecture on primes (considering consecutive absolute differences), as a number theorist, I am still interested to see if there is a connection between Newton’s Finite Differences and Gilbreath Conjecture. This is a very hard problem in professional math level… Also I once trolled a facebook post, a what comes next question like the following: The question was asking 9->90 8->72 7->56 6->42 3->? I just thought of the sequence 9,90,8,72,7,56,6,42,3,19. In my post I said that the answer is 19 because I like 19!!! And explained that the terms of the huge 9th degree formula/polynomial (I used Wolfram Alpha to get the expanded polynomial of course! ) of the sequence exactly match with 9,90 etc… 😀. Because you can literally continue any finite sequence in any way, Lagrange Interpolation Theorem guarantees unique polynomials for each value of ?
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  4322. It took me a long time to get to what the Mathologer pulls out of his hat after the first minute (following "whoa! What just happened?") Part of the problem was I steadfastly refused to accept that the three angle bisectors of the triangle meet at the center of the inscribed circle, without proving it according to Euclid--perhaps because of it's similarity to the flawed proposition that leads to the "theorem" that all triangles are isosceles. Getting past that hurdle, though, it's pretty straightforward to derive a formula for any triangle with a unit circle inscribed in it. Each colored segment (BTW of course you wouldn't use "blue" because it's name would be the same as side B) is simply equal to the cotangent of the half angle of each vertex. For the 3-4-5 you can apply the half-angle formulas to get the cotangents in terms of the cosines (sqrt(1+cosine/1-cosine) ), which for the 3-4-5 are 4/5/ 3/5 and 0, and you miraculously get whole numbers for each side. Time to unpause the video. It follows that the sum and product of the cotangents of any 3 angles that add up to 90 degrees must be the same. I guess the only hope of proving that is expressing them in terms of imaginary exponentials, and grinding through a lot of algebra. No geometric insight in that though. For another time. BTW while Heron's formula in terms of the sides instead of the semi-perimeters might be preferable in some ways, if you're actually calculating it you annoyingly have to form 4 sum-difference combinations of the sides, whereas in terms of the semi, you can just stick it in a memory on your pocket calculator and re-use it. Did Heron have a pocket calculator? He was an engineer, wasn't he? In all seriousness, Heron being an engineer clears up a question I've had for years: were this Heron of Alexandria and the one credited with inventing the first steam engine-which consisted of a steam boiler with jets on the side that set it spinning- one and the same? Apparently so. It's inefficiency, and other logistical problems problems, probably explains why the chariots of the day weren't powered by Heron engines.
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  4360. Great video. I had never thought of it that way even though I have probably read it and forgot its beauty. I also advocate student to do these "discrete derivation" steps and see if they get to a row where all values are similar and don't understand either why it's so forgotten. It's such a great problem solving methodology. Then why it is a indication that the points might be a polynomial of k:th power, where k is how many times they have "derived". I usually take the sum of squares as first example, close to what you did. I have on the other hand told them to set up the desired polynomial as ax³+bx²+cx+d and then replace x with the order the number have in the sequence. I usually include 0 so to be nice. This will make them get the four equation d=0 a+b+c+d=1 8a+4b+2c+d=5 and 27a+9b+3c+d=14 which they then solve with Gauss Elimination making a=1/3 b=1/2, c=1/6 and d=0. So I sort of make them do a vandermonde matrix without them even noticing. They will have to make the indexing correct though our their polynomial might get transformed on the x-axis a bit, but would still be able to predict upcoming values. Probably easier with the method you suggest here when it's an even bigger power though as the Gauss elimination or matrix inverse processes are prone to introduce accidental mistakes by students and myself :). Thank you so much for the insight! Maybe even better even for lower powered polynomials :) It all depend on the circumstances! But this is more beautiful I agree. Another nice example of this potential is make this exercise: Find the second-degree polynomial that intersects these points (2,1) (3,6) and (5,28) making them realize we can set up such a matrix even if we are "missing" a value if we know n+1 points and that we are seeking a polynomial of the n:th power. Your channel is really great as you put that little extra concise effort in the sentences and phrasing, making it unlikely for viewers to take it out of context, which seems to be a big problem on YouTube nowadays.
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  4369.  @ragnkja  Yes! I had forgotten that. There's a logarithmic scale from 1 to 10 on the sliding part, and a mirror of the same scale on the frame of the ruler - this is for multiplication. And, there's another line of numbers on the frame of the ruler. Where the second scale has '1', the third has e, Euler's constant. Where the second scale has '2', the third has e^2. Where the second scale has '3', the third has e^3, and so on. So, if you slide the '1' of the slider to '2' on the second scale, the same place as e^2 on the third scale, then the slider numbers '2', '3', '4', and '5' match up with the second scale at 4, 6, 8, and 10, and match up with the third scale at e^4 (or, e^2, the starting number, squared), e^6(=(e^2)^3), e^8(=(e^2)^4), and (e^2)^5. Putting the '1' of the sliding scale at any value 'x' on the third scale means '2' will match up with x^2, '1.5' will match up with x^1.5; putting the '10' of the sliding scale at any value 'x' on the third scale means '5' will match up with x^0.5, '3' will match up with x^0.3, etc.. But the third scale only works for numbers between e and e^10. There's a fourth scale for numbers between e^0.1 and e, and depending on the slide rule, a fifth for e^0.01 and e^0.1, a sixth for e^0.001 and e^0.01, a seventh for e^10 and e^100, and an eighth for e^100 and e^1000. For multiplication, the second scale works for all powers of 10, but this method for exponentiation needs another printed scale for each power of 10. I'm curious if there's a way to make a (finite) slide rule with just two scales that will compute one number to the power of another, generally.
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  4580. Here's my proof (I did not watch beyond 2:22). Clearly the three line segments have the same length, being each composed of one segment of each colour. Then any two of them are interchanged by the reflection in the inner angle bisector of the vertex where they intersect. It is well known that the inner angle bisectors intersect at the center C of the inscribed circle of the triangle. Then the mentioned reflection implies two equalities of distance from C between a pair of end points of the reflected segments (one of them being the ends of a pair of same colour whiskers, the other the remaining pair). One gets that for each of the three inner bisectors, and by transitivity these equalities imply equal distance of each of the six end points to C. Viewing a bit more of the video, I can add that for the successive application of the three mentioned reflections in some order, there is in each case one of the segments S that is mapped successively to each of the other two segments and then back to S again, but with its end points interchanged. The combined action is the colour-reversing one in your "swiveling proof" that the midpoint of S is it point of tangency with the inscribed circle; you realised each swivel as a rotation, but a reflection does the same with less drama. Now the composition of any three reflections in lines concurrent in C is again a reflection with respect to some line passing through C (since the only isometries fixing C are rotations and such reflections, and the composition reverses orientation). Here that composition coincides with the reflection with respect to the perpendicular bisector of the segment S. The fact that this axis passes through C means that the midpoint of S (on this axis) is the point of tangency of S to the inscribed circle of the triangle. When composing reflections through three concurrent lines, the result is the reflection in the line obtained by rotation the axis of the first reflection by the angle turning from the axis of the second reflection to that of the third. Applying that general fact in this situation gives a relation between the angles formed, at C, between the angle bisectors and the perpendiculars to the sides, and interesting triangle fact. Finally the fact that any reflection is its own inverse menas that if we apply the three reflections and then all three again in the same order, the composition will be the identity. The "orbit" of any point of the plane under these successive reflections gives six points, clearly all at equal distances from C; that's your windscreen wiper theorem.
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  4677. PUZZLES! 14:57 How many 1-S-S isosceles triangles are in the diagram? 7 * something, that's for sure I'm gonna count the ones where the tip of the triangle is at the top most corner. There are 9 of those. 7 * 9 = 63 Or alternatively you can count by base. On a 1 line, there's only 1 triangle. On an R line, there are 3 triangles positioned like a W. On an S line, there are 5 triangles positioned again in a zigzag pattern. There are 7 of each of those lines, so there are 7 * (1 + 3 + 5) = 63 triangles. 30:12 Show that -1/phi is a solution to x^2 = x + 1 just like phi itself. -1/phi + 1 = 1 - phi^-1 = (1/phi^2) * (phi^2 - phi) = (1/phi^2) * (phi + 1 - phi) = (1/phi^2) * 1 = (1/phi)^2 * (-1)^2 = (-1/phi)^2 31:51 What happens when you try other indices of fibonacci numbers? Negative numbers are easy. You can just as easily extend the fibonacci numbers backwards as forwards. 2nd: 1 1st: 1 0th: 0 -1st: 1 -2nd: -1 -3rd: 2 -4th: -3 -5th: 5 It seems to be the case that the magnitude is the same but the sign alternates. Let's see: F(-n) = (phi^-n - (-1/phi)^-n) / (phi - (-1/phi)) = ((1/phi)^n - (-phi)^n) / (phi - (-1/phi)) = (-1)^n * -F(n) For non-integers, you have a (-1/phi)^n term in there. You're gonna get a complex number. As n gets larger the complex part disappears for the most part but generally it's... a bit weird 41:20 What happens when you do the R maneuver on a 1x1x1, then an S maneuver on that? Algebraically, the R maneuver does this: As + Br + C => (A+B)s + (A+C)r + B Notice that the R term becomes the constant in the term below. In the pascalian grid, the same applies: the R term in one tile is the same as the constant term in the next one below in the R direction. So there are only TWO pascalian grids, not three. Sorry I got sidetracked let's apply the R maneuver, then the S maneuver 1, 1, 1 => 2, 2, 1 => 5, 4, 2 Because RS = SR, we should get the same result if we do the S maneuver first, then the R maneuver 1, 1, 1 => 3, 2, 1 => 5, 4, 2 43:43 PF: Everything we've been doing with all these maneuvers is basically one big linear transformation. The matrices correspond exactly to the reverse R and S maneuvers earlier. Their inverses should be the forwards R and S maneuvers, then. The basis is (s,r,1) btw Then it follows quite obviously that since we modeled these matrices exactly from the properties of the numbers themselves, then the matrix multiplication should obey those exact same rules. The bottom row corresponds to what would happen if we multiplied this component matrix to the column vector (0,0,1), interpreted as a constant 1. 44:51 The chase is on for finding rho and sigma in nature! Idk, look for anything heptagon-shaped. Pretty rare in nature because it's almost always 2's, 3's, or 5's Obviously it's not gonna show up with something as simple as ruler and compass, you can't construct a regular heptagon using ruler and compass 47:14 What's next? depends on how I'm feeling, really. feeling with the theme of the video? 14. It's a fibonacci sequence. feeling like one of those crazies you mentioned at the beginning? 2, it's the next digit of pi. close enough feeling overly rigorous? literally anything, the operation isn't given to us. it could be the square root of R for all that is holy
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  4712.  @Mathologer  This isn’t fulled fleshed out since I haven’t grasped homological algebra yet. This is more precise but incomplete. There is a Fourier series of simple polytopes. d-dimensional simplexes are equivalent simple polytopes. See equation 3.34 for Fourier transform of general d-dimensional simplex, section 8.2 for simplexes and simple polytopes, and section 8.5 which covers the Fourier transform for a simple polytope by way of Brion’s formula at “A friendly introduction to Fourier analysis on polytopes” (2023) by Robins. The geometric realization of a simplicial set is a CW complex. This means the CW decomposition of a topological space corresponds to a simplicial set. A simplicial set is a presheaf on the simplex category. n-Simplexes are homeomorphic to n-balls. n-balls are homeomorphic to R^n Euclidean space. Maps from R^n -> X to a topological space X are that of smooth manifolds when they are local homeomorphisms. This suggests using a more general definition like sheaves since they generalize the smooth structure of manifolds. Using homological arguments which I still need to learn, a (derived) sheaf should determine a homology theory. I would like replace the simplicial set of the equivalent CW complex with its presheaf. Then, I think I can argue with more work that the the sheaf of topological space X and its corresponding homology theory H*(X) is equivalent to one given by the sheaf of its CW approximation (= simplicial set) Y and its homology theory H*(Y). Next would be to calculate the homology of its CW approximation Y using the Fourier series implicit in the Fourier transform of its simplicial complex in each dimension as its nth homology.
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  4758. Back in 2016 when I saw Beck present the proof on Numberphile, I looked it up - I remember reading it in 1990 when it came out. Since I was teaching a number theory course at the time, I considered inlcuding it in my course, and so I studied it. Zagier says that it was not constructive , but I discovered that it is easy to use Zagier's involutions to give a constructive proof. Of course, I should say I rediscovered it for the ?th time. Letting S represent the switching involution and Z represent Zagier's windmill involution, take the fixed point of Z, namely x=1, y=1, z = k=(p-1)/4 as the start, compute SZ((1,1,k)), (SZ)^2((1,1,k)), etc. That is, the orbit of the solution (1,1,k) under the mapping SZ. Then RIGHT IN THE MIDDLE OF THAT ORBIT is found a fixed point of the switch involution S, that is, the sum of squares solution. Try it!! Also, this is quite general: TWO INVOLUTION LEMMA. If S and Z are two involutions on a finite set and v is a fixed point of Z, the the orbit of v under the mappint SZ will contain another fixed point of Z or a fixed point of S RIGHT IN THE MIDDLE! WHICH OCCURS DEPENDS ON WHETHER THE LENGHT OF THE ORBIT OF v is even or odd. In Zagier's case, Z has a unique fixed point so the fixed point found must be a fixed point of S, which is the sum of squares solution. (This is the constructive version of Zagieer's proof.) As Zagier points point, many of his statements are true when p is just an integer of the form 4k+1. What happens when you start with p = a product of two primes of the form 4k+1 OR with two primes of the form 4k+3 (so their product is of the form 4k+1)? I know some answers. Try it!
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  4808. I am uniquely placed to authoritatively answer your question, Ser Polster. It's because YouTubers use the English Wikipedia. On 2021-09-24, Jade Tan-Holmes on the YouTube channel Up And Atom covered this, with a notable "What is this? Physics?" aside in the middle of the video. In response the next day I improved the English Wikipedia article vastly, based upon several university press mathematical textbooks. You will find me in its edit history. Until that point, the English Wikipedia article had only laid out the calculus approach. YouTubers, working from it, took its approach. I added all of the things that you mentioned to the English Wikipedia article, which at that point hadn't mentioned Oresme, hadn't properly laid out Torricelli's original proof, hadn't included Torricelli's original shape with the cylinder, or even supplied Torricelli's original name. I also added the explanation of the differences between "mathematical" and "physical" paint, and the contemporary 17th century philosophical and mathematical debates that ensued. The French Wikipedia had already gained a graphic for Torricelli's shape, fortunately. Although its coverage at the time was better than the English Wikipedia's, it too didn't address Torricelli's proof in detail or go into things like Hobbes and Wallis and Barrow. I like to think that the French Wikipedia was spurred, by my efforts, into attempting to leapfrog the English one and be ahead again, because it has gained a lot more in 2022 and 2023. I wrote in 2021 in a comment on the Up And Atom video that "One day, video makers referencing Torricelli will actually show the shape that Torricelli used in his proof. It's not that day yet, though. Hint: There's a cylinder on the end." It has taken over 2 years for that day to finally come. Well done.
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  4972. This video has in it the first thing that I ever saw that was interesting (to me) as mathematics. As far as I knew before then, mathematics functioned only to accomplish something else, in particular far-out physics and miraculous inventions. I therefor took algebra (and got all A's) because that was what I was told Einstein was writing on the blackboard in those nostalgic, old photographs. I was disillusioned and frustrated (as teenagers are) to find by the second semester of algebra that there was nothing yet that could honestly be claimed to be useful or practical whatsoever, and no clues to how or when that could ever happen. Then a thermonuclear device was set off in my brain, by an incidental, optional section of the textbook, just there for its own sake, unrelated to the rest of the chapter. The well-known observation that the differences between successive squares are the odd numbers, also means, they said, that the second differences are all 2. Likewise with cubes, the third differences are all 2*3. Likewise with fourth powers, the fourth differences are 2*3*4. Mind totally blown, I had to calculate this by hand (no personal calculators in 1959 and I hate arithmetic), for larger and larger numbers, and higher and higher powers, over the next few weeks, just to see it (not that I doubted it), just like watching Mr. Wizard (Don Herbert) freeze a hot dog in liquid air and break it on the floor never gets old. I thought I should be able (since I got A's) to figure out why this works from what had been in the book, so I spent the next couple of months working on it (while higher priority things needed doing) without success. (But not without finding chains of things that were not in the book.) Of course the cause of the phenomenon would be in some book somewhere, but that's not the point, anymore than some one else looking at the sunset is the same thing as you looking at it. Blessing to the textbook author, who probably had to lawyer to keep it in, for putting that incidental aside in the book. And blessings to mathologer.
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  5092. Proof of the rainbow square corners: I'll be referring to the example at 13:00 a lot, as "the canonical example". All right, we need some lemmas. Lemma 1 ("alternating stripes"): In any 1xN subregion in which no run of three squares have three different colors, the region alternates between two colors. Example: the top row of the canonical example. Proof: consider the two leftmost squares (rotate WLOG an Nx1 region into 1xN). Since they are inside a 2x2 subgrid, they must have different colors; call them A and B. Consider now the third leftmost square; since no three run of squares have three different colors, it must also have color A or B. But since it is adjacent to the second leftmost square, which has color B (WLOG), it cannot also have color B; hence it must have color A. Consider now the second, third and fourth squares; they must have colors B, A, B by a similar argument, and in general every square must have the same color as the square two squares to its left. Corollary 1: if the board has no 1x3 region (in either orientation) with three different squares, no two corners have the same color. Example: swap yellow and green in the bottom row of the canonical example; it now conforms to this condition. Proof: by the same argument as above, every square must be the same color as two squares to the left, and two squares up. Hence if you divide the grid into disjoint 2x2 squares (this is possible since the side length is even), each square has the same color pattern as every other square. But then the bottom left corner of the whole square has the same color as the bottom left of the top left 2x2 square; and likewise, the corners of the top left 2x2 square has the same color as the corners of the whole square. But the corners of every 2x2 square are all different. Lemma 2 ("zig-zag bands"): if there is a vertical run of three squares of three different colors, this determines the complete coloring of the containing three rows. Likewise for horizontal runs. Example: the lower three cells in the leftmost column in the canonical example. Proof: consider three squares with coordinates (r-1, c) and (r, c) and (r+1, c), colored A, B and C respectively (example: yellow, red, green). Consider now (r, c+1). It is in a 2x2 square with (r, c) and (r+1, c), so it cannot be color B or C. It is in a 2x2 square with (r-1, c) and (r, c) so it can not be color A or B. But then it must be color D (e.g. blue). Consider now (r-1, c+1). It is in a 2x2 square with (r-1, c) and (r, c) and (r, c+1), colored A, B and C, so it must be color C. Likewise, (r+1, c+1) is in a 2x2 square with (r, c) and (r+1, c) and (r, c+1), colored B, C and D, so it must be color A. But note that (r-1, c+1) and (r, c+1) and (r+1, c+1) are themselves of three different colors. Repeat this analysis, extending to the right edge. Now mirror this analysis and also extend it to the left edge. The pattern you will see is that the middle row (row r) alternates between colors B and D, and the two other rows alternate between A and C, one row starting with A and the other row starting with C. Every intersection of this three-row band with a column contains three squares of three distinct colors. [I call them zig-zag bands, as the yellow color zig-zags in knight's moves around the alternating red-blue central row; so does the green color.] Corollary 2: there cannot both be a vertical and a horizontal zig-zag band (= run of three squares of different colors). Example: none, they don't exist ;-) Proof: the middle column of every vertical zig-zag band is an alternation between two colors. Every column intersects a horizontal zig-zag band at three squares of three different colors; this includes the middle columns if vertical zig-zag bands. Three squares cannot simultaneously have exactly two and exactly three distinct colors. Corollary 3: if there is a horizontal (vertical) zig-zag band, every row (column) is an alternation of two colors; and each row (column) uses the opposite pair of its two neighbouring rows (columns). Example: the rows of the canonical example. Proof: let a horizontal zig-zag band be given, and consider its central row, colored A and B in an alternating pattern. Every square in an adjacent row is in a 2x2 with two squares from the central row, colored A and B, hence the two adjacent rows must be colored C and D. But then by lemma 1 they must alternate. But then by a similar analysis their neighbouring rows must alternate, using colors A and B. Apply this reasoning inductively until you get to the edges of the board (in both directions). Theorem: in every rectangle with even side lengths, with each tile colored in one of four colors such that every 2x2 square of tiles has all four colors present, the corners have different colors. Example: the canonical example. Proof: if there is no horizontal (vertical) zig-zag band, this is corollary 1. If there is a zig-zag band, the top row alternates between colors A and B, and since the vertical side length is even the bottom row alternates between colors C and D. Since the horizontal side length is even, any row in which two colors alternate (that's all of them), the leftmost and rightmost squares have opposite colors. This applies in particular to the top and bottom rows, and so the four corners have colors A, B, C and D, all different. (4n-by-4n squares are all examples of 2m-by-2k rectangles, if we choose m = k = 2n.)
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  5207. CHALLENGES! 3:20 Let y = 1/x. Squishing vertically by a factor of c corresponds to replacing y with cy. Stretching horizontally by a factor of c corresponds to replacing x with x/c. Now substitute: cy = 1/(x/c) cy = c/x y = 1/x And we recover our original shape. Everything in the interior stays in the interior for obvious reasons. 8:53 A(X) ranges from 1 to X, and has width X - 1 and height 1/X on the X end. A(Y) ranges from 1 to Y, and has width Y - 1 and height 1 on the Y end. The A(Y) shape needs to squish by a factor of X to fit. And it should stretch by that same factor of X. The total width should be (X - 1) + X(Y - 1) = X - 1 + XY - X = XY - 1, exactly the width of the shape from 1 to XY. Or you can use FTC and notice that the antiderivative of 1/x is ln(x) + C, and that ln(X)+ ln(Y) = ln(XY). Provable with the integral definition but that's for later [°1]. 10:48 Just use the subtraction formula! N = 0: log(X) - log(X) = log(X/X) 0 = log(X^0) = log(1) N = -1: log(1) - log(X) = log(1/X) = log(X^(-1)) N = -M: Nlog(X) = log(1) - Mlog(X) = log(1) - log(X^M) = log(1/(X^-M)) = log(X^N) Rationals is slightly trickier. R = P/Q: log(X^(P/Q)) = P * log(X^(1/Q)). Now multiply and divide by Q (the analytic version of shape-shifting I guess) P * (Q / Q) * log(X^1/Q) = (P/Q) * log(X^(Q/Q) = R * log(X). For reals, I'm just gonna say log is continuous. I'll leave a non-rigorous "proof" for later [°2]. [°1] Integral definition Suppose ln(x) was defined by this integral: Integral[1/t dt; from 1 to x] We want to prove ln(xy) = ln(x) + ln(y). Integral[1/t dt; from 1 to xy] can be split into two: Integral[1/t dt; from 1 to x] + Integral[1/t dt; from x to xy] The first half is ln(x) by our definition. The second requires a little work. I want to take x to 1 and xy to y. Setting u = t/x will do the trick. u = t/x du = dt/x lower bound = 1 upper bound = y Integral[x/t * dt/x; from x to xy] Integral[1/u du; from 1 to y] which is exactly equal to ln(y). Notice what we did here. We split the integral into two, and rescaled one of them to fit. That's the reverse of the shape-shifting magic! And the u-substitution is that magic shape-shifting squash and stretch in the geometric proof! [°2] Probably Continuity of the Logarithm We know the area function is defined for each rational number. Clearly the area function is also monotonic since if A(x) < A(y) if and only if x < y. I can approximate any real number using a sequence of strictly increasing or strictly decreasing rationals. For example, I can approximate sqrt(2) with the sequence 1, 4/3, 7/5, 41/29, 239/169, ... from below, or 2, 3/2, 17/12, 99/70, 577/408, ... from above. Since A(x) is monotonic, we expect the first increasing sequence to output areas that increase, and the second to output areas that decrease. The LH limits and RH limits exist, and they can't explode because LH limit <= RH limit. Also, the integral of a function is usually continuous, especially of the integrand itself is continuous. We know quite easily 1/x is continuous everywhere ln(x) is defined (the interval (0, +inf]) so we expect ln(x) to also be continuous.
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  5270. Well, here's my "ahaa" recorded: [Spoilers ahead] The numbers of tilings with identical 2×1 pieces of 2×n plains seem to match up with the Fiblnacci numbers, such that for a plain of 2×n the number of possible tillings is F(n+1). So let's see why. Before proceeding, note that any 2×n board can be covered with "vertical" tiles, whose height is 2 and fills completly the 2 unit long side of the board. Also, note that any 2 parallel tiles can be rotated over their joined centre (so that vertical tiles now become horizontal). These are the only two ways of tilling a 2×n board. For the 2×0 board the one possibility is to use 2 tiles. Duh. For the 2×1 board the one possibility is to use one vertical tile. Duh. For the 2×2, things start to grt interesting. Now, you can use 2 vertical tiles to make the all-vertical tilling, or rotate the 2 to make a tilling with 2 horizontal tiles. 2×3 allowa for the all-vertical tilling and for 2 other tillings: tiles 1 and 2 may be rotated, or tiles 2 and 3 may be rotated intead. There still isn't enough space to rotate more that one pair of tiles. Vertical: 1; 1 horizontal: 2; 2 horizontal: 0. With a 2×4 board, the results are as follow: vertical: 1; 1h: 3 (=4–1); 2h: 1. K, we need formulas. For the all-vertical tilling, it is allways possible, and thus v=1. For 1 horizontal (one pair rotated, h1), since the pair itself is 2 units whide, it is n–1 for n greater that 1 (and I guess it also works for 1, as it just spits 0), where n is one side of the board (2×n is the board). For more than one pair of horizontal tiles, this gets complicated. For 2×4, there's one possibility. For 2×5 there's 3. I will further subdivide these into groups defined by how much space there is to the left of the leftmost horizontal tiles. If they are right touching the side, then there's as many possibilities as for covering a 2×(n–2) board, due to the space they take up. If they were 1 unit away, there would be as many possibilities as for a 2×(n–3) board. Since I cannot type epsilon, I will just explain the infinite sum that is about to take place. Say t(2×n) is the amounth of ways to tile a 2×n board; then t(2×n) = t(2×n–2) + t(2×n–3) + t(2×n–4) + t(2×n–5) + t(2×n–6) + t(2×n–7) + … + t(2×3) + t(2×2) + t(2×1) + t(2×0) + 1 The last one is for the all-vertical tilling. But don't you worry, we can simplify this a bit by noticing that t(2×n–1) is the sum of all of the above except for t(2×n–2), and thus t(2×n) = t(2×n–1) + t(2×n–2) Beautifull.
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  5475. ≈ 5½ min – Lucas (pron: LOO-kah) numbers, are sums of pairs of Fibonacci numbers that are next-but-one: 0 + 1 = 1 1 + 2 = 3 1 + 3 = 4 2 + 5 = 7 3 + 8 = 11 . . . Lᵢ = Fᵢ₊₁ + Fᵢ₋₁   from which their adherence to the same recursion rule as the Fibonacci numbers, follows. But I wonder – is there a relation of these to the Suzanne Vega song, "Luka"? It's pronounced the same! I know we've touched on this in previous comments, that you too are a Martin Gardner fan; so I'm curious whether you got the idea for this from his early MG column on Fibonacci numbers? In it he mentions extending the Fibonacci recursion rule to k'th order, still with all 1's as coefficients, and that as k → ∞, the limiting ratio of consecutive terms → 2⁻⁻. That limiting ratio, R(k), is always the root of the characteristic polynomial, that's between 1 and 2. R(2) = φ;   φ² – φ – 1 = 0                 (Fibonacci) R(3) = x;    x³ – x² – x – 1 = 0           (Tribonacci) R(4) = y;    y⁴ – y³ – y² – y – 1 = 0   (Tetranacci) . . . etc. The "Infininacci" numbers (k=∞) are just the powers of 2. Another curiosity – the discarded solution, "phi-red", –1/φ, is also the consecutive-term limit of the Fibonacci sequence –– but in the negative direction, where the signs alternate! ..., 13, –8, 5, –3, 2, –1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ... So the ratio F(n)/F(n-1) → –1/φ as n → –∞; and it → φ as n → ∞. Question: Is there an analogous rule when the recursion order, k > 2? Danke schön, Herr Polster, for a splendid presentation!
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  5734. You've just asked (24:27) what happens if you apply some ears repeatedly, in a combination of ears. Looking at the "eigenpolygons", I notice they're not exactly axis-aligned, although three of them are close and the other is almost diagonal-aligned for one of its points, but I'm guessing that's a distraction and what we're doing is, for an original p-gon with corners represented by complex numbers z(n) for n in p = {0, ..., p-1}, a decomposition of form z(n) = sum(j in p: q(j)*cycle(j*n/p)) where cycle(t) = exp(2*pi*i*t) is the unit-period traversal of the unit circle; q(0) is the centroid (cycle(0) = 1 so j = 0 just contributes q(0) to the sum), the phase and scale of other q(j) configure the orientation of the p-gon traversed j steps at a time. The real fun must be in proving that, for any z, there is a q that makes this work; but, give or take normalisation (my guess is 1/p), I'm guessing q(j) = sum(j in p: z(n)*cycle(j*n/p))/p will do the job. Then application of each of the "ears" is linear in the two end-points of the edge to which it's applying the ears, so maps onto doing the same to each cycle(j*n/p) polygon contributing to the sum. The effect on these regular polygons is a simple scaling, scaling each q(j) by a j-dependent (complex) factor that's zero when the ear is either j/p or 1 -j/p turns (depending on the direction of our traversal, I suspect). If you apply k/p turn ears for each k from 1 through p-1 you'll thus annul all q(j) except q(0) and be left with the centroid. Repeated application of a given "ear" angle thus just repeats that scaling of each q(j) by the same j-dependent factor, so doesn't annihilate any q(j) that the first application didn't. So if you apply k/p turn ears for all but one of the k from 1 through p-1, you'll get a regular p-gon; and repeating some of those ears will only change the scaling. Now to resume watching and see if I'm wrong ...
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  5743. Great video as always (I know this comment comes a bit late)! What is even more mind-blowing (and would require another Mathologer video!) is that even the set of numbers that we can describe with a finite number of words (and symbols) is countable. This implies that the vast majority of all real numbers remains for us a complete mystery beyond our grasp. To be more precise, let us decide a set of symbols, for example S=English Alphabet U Digits U parentheses U logical connectives (and, or, not, imply) U {symbol for belonging} U quantifiers. We may want to add some more special symbols (for example +, /, etc.) so in the end we may agree that S has at most - say - 200 symbols (or in general N symbols). You can list all the possible finite "sentences" made with the symbols from S starting from length 1 (each individual symbol), then length 2 etc. So, all the set of finite sequences of symbols from S is countable. Some of these sequences will not make much sense (e.g. "2+"). Some others will represent a number (for example "pi" will be pi, "square root of 2" will be the square root of 2 and so on). Well, the numbers represented by these sequences will constitute a countable set, thus a negligible part of all the real numbers. Notice that the same applies if instead of a finite set S we use a countably infinite set S. The resulting set of sequences is the union of S, SxS, SxSxS (Cartesian Products) etc. which is a countable infinity of countably infinite sets, thus it is countable as well and as a consequence it covers 0% of all real numbers! I bet that this will beat the 0.999... = 1 incredulity...
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  5867. 39:10 here is my wild geometric proof for the diagonal dealing problem. step 1 - cover the plane with an infinite grid of fundamental rectangles of area p*q where p & q are relatively prime. dont do the wrap around thing and instead draw diagonal lines and cover the plane with these rectangles and make a rule that any 2 points in the plane are "equal" if they are in the same part of the fundamental rectangle (if the diagonal line you are about to draw passes through one of the grid squares in this analogy you place a card in that grid square while diagonal dealing) step 2 - sit at the origin of the plane at coordinates 0,0 and find out how many "grid line intersection points" you can "see" (the rule is you can't see through a grid line intersection point, its an obstruction that will block your view; you can only see things if you draw lines connecting them to the origin without hitting one of the grid line intersection points, the theorem is you can only see the grid line intersection points of relatively prime coordinates when you are sitting at the origin, since otherwise your view will be blocked, this is an easy consequence of a result in a previous video about rational angles which is not hard to prove) step 3 - realize that if p & q were not relatively prime, your view would be blocked at least once by one of the grid points before you finished drawing the whole line. if you tried to draw the diagonal line just starting from the origin and going along the line with the required length you would have to overlap cards on each other corresponding to the number of times your view is blocked in this analogy
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  5931. Hello Burkhard. Thank you for yet another truly excellent video. I was playing around with some sequences trying to find formulas using “The Master Formula” and was having a few problems as my results were out of alignment with the correct positions. Of course, this could be corrected by substituting (n-1) in place of n in the formula, but this was a bit of extra algebra work after already going through the algebra to tidy up the formula in the first place. To avoid having to rehash the algebra, it is simpler to use (n-1)C(r-1) instead of nC(r-1) when setting up the G-N formula. Was the choice to use nC(r-1) for the video to keep it visually tidy? I don’t think it would have been any worse using (n-1)C(r-1) with the benefit of arriving at the correct formula without adjustment. As part of my checking, I thought I would look at the sequence used at 16:26 Sequence 1 8 17 36 75 146 263 "Δ1" 7 9 19 39 71 117 "Δ2" 2 10 20 32 46 "Δ3" 8 10 12 14 "Δ4" 2 2 2 The formula for our sequence is then given by: 1 × (n-1)C0 + 7 × (n-1)C1 + 2 × (n-1)C2 + 8 × (n-1)C3 + 2 × (n-1)C4 = 1×1/0! + 7×(n-1)/1! + 2×(n-1)(n-2)/2! + 8×(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/3! + 2×(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)(n-4)/4! = 1 + 7(n-1) + 2(n-1)(n-2)/2 + 8(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)/6 + 2(n-1)(n-2)(n-3)(n-4)/24 = 1 + 7(n-1) + 2(n^2-3n+2)/2 + 8(n^3-6n^2+11n-6)/6 + 2(n^4-10n^3+35n^2-50n+24)/24 = 1 + 7(n-1) + (n^2-3n+2) + 4(n^3-6n^2+11n-6)/3 + 1(n^4-10n^3+35n^2-50n+24)/12 = (1/12)( 12 + 84(n-1) + 12(n^2-3n+2) + 16(n^3-6n^2+11n-6) + 1(n^4-10n^3+35n^2-50n+24) ) = (1/12)( 12 + 84n-84 + 12n^2-36n+24 + 16n^3-96n^2+176n-96 + n^4-10n^3+35n^2-50n+24 ) = (1/12)( 12-84+24-96+24 + 84n-36n+176n-50n + 12n^2-96n^2+35n^2 + 16n^3-10n^3 + n^4 ) = (1/12)( n^4 + 6n^3 -49n^2 +174n -120 ) So the formula for the n-th term in the sequence is: f(n) = (n^4 + 6n^3 -49n^2 +174n -120) / 12 Checking the first few values: f(1) = (1×1+6×1-49×1+174×1-120)/12 = (1+6-49+174-120)/12 = 12/12 = 1 ✔ f(2) = (1×16+6×8-49×4+174×2-120)/12 = (16+48-196+348-120)/12 = 96/12 = 8 ✔ f(3) = (1×81+6×27-49×9+174×3-120)/12 = (81+162-441+522-120)/12 = 204/12 = 17 ✔ f(4) = (1×256+6×64-49×16+174×4-120)/12 = (256+384-784+696-120)/12 = 432/12 = 36 ✔ … The formula generated by using nC(r-1) in the video at 16:38 is f(n+1) = (n^4 + 10n^3 -25n^2 +98n +12) / 12 This takes essentially the same working as above but then requires the following working to get f(n): f(n) = ((n-1)^4 + 10(n-1)^3 -25(n-1)^2 +98(n-1) +12) / 12 = ((n^4-4n^3+6n^2-4n+1) + 10(n^3-3n^2+3n-1) -25(n^2-2n+1) +98(n-1) +12) / 12 = ( n^4 -4n^3 +6n^2 -4n +1 +10n^3 -30n^2 +30n -10 -25n^2 +50n -25 +98n -98 +12) / 12 = ( n^4 +(-4+10)n^3 + (6-30-25)n^2 +(-4+30+50+98)n + (1-10-25-98+12) ) / 12 = ( n^4 + 6n^3 -49n^2 +174n -120 ) / 12 as above
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  5935.  @Mathologer  Most things work out similarly nicely for the enneagon, with one exception which is particularly curious. There's still a little I haven't quite figured out, so I'll explain what I do know. In the paper Steinbach uses α,β and γ for the ratios in increasing size, but I'll be using a, b and c. Applying Ptolemy's theorem we obtain the following 6 relations, after simplifying a few things: a^2 = b+1 ab = a+c ac = b+c b^2 = b+c+1 bc = a+b+c c^2 = a+b+c+1 Just as in the case with the pentagon and heptagon, we can use these relations to reduce any non-negative integer powers of a, b and c to an integer linear combination of 1, a, b and c. However, unlike the pentagon and heptagon, we don't get all integer powers in general. The relations alone can be used to obtain 1/a = a+b-c-1 and 1/c = c-b, however 1/b cannot be obtained from the relations alone, for reasons we shall see later. We can then define maps P, Q, R, S: ZxNxZ->Z, where Z and N are the integers and the non-negative integers respectively, such that: a^i b^j c^k = P(i,j,k)c+Q(i,j,k)b+R(i,j,k)a+S(i,j,k) for all i, k in Z and j in N. Multiplying through by a, b and c gives forward recurrences for P,Q,R and R in the i, j and k indices, and dividing by a and c gives reverse recurrences for P, Q, R and S in the i and k indices. Like with the pentagon and heptagon, we see that Q, R and S are just shifted copies of P. In particular: Q(i,j,k) = P(i,j+1,k-1), R(i,j,k) = P(i+1,j,k-1) and S(i,j,k) = P(i,j,k-1) for all i, k in Z, j in N. I do wonder if it's perhaps better to write P, Q and R in terms of S, as then P, Q and R are positive shifted versions of S in a fairly symmetric way. To understand why we don't get 1/b from the relations, consider that there are multiple solutions to the relations. Any triple (x,y,z) satisfying the relations of (a,b,c), must also have: x^i y^j z^k = P(i,j,k)z+Q(i,j,k)y+R(i,j,k)x+S(i,j,k) for all i, k in Z and j in N. What are these solutions? Well we can use the relations to show that if (x,y,z) is a solution, x, y and z must be roots of the polynomials x^4-x^3-3x^2+2x+1, y^4-3y^3+3y and z^4-2z^3-3z^2+z+1 respectively. Each has four real roots which match up to form 4 distinct solutions and can be expressed as (a,b,c), (1,0,-1), (-c/a,b/a,-1/a) and (-1/c,-b/c,a/c). We can now see the problem with deriving 1/y from the relations; the solution (1,0,-1). If 1/y could be derived from the relations, we'd be able to express negative powers of y as a linear combination of 1, x, y and z. But negative powers of y in the solution (1,0,-1) correspond to dividing by 0. We shall see this isn't all to the story though. Now that we have our solutions to the relations, we can form a matrix equation A = MB, where: A = {a^i b^j c^k, (-1)^k δ_j, (-c/a)^i (b/a)^j (-1/a)^k, (-1/c)^i (-b/c)^j (a/c)^k} B = {P(i,j,k), Q(i,j,k), R(i,j,k), S(i,j,k)} M = {{c, b, a, 1}, {-1, 0, 1, 1}, {-1/a, b/a, -c/a, 1}, {a/c, -b/c, -1/c, 1}} Note that 0^j for j in N is just δ_j the Kronecker Delta at j, where we're using the combinatorial convention that 0^0 = 1. We can then invert M and obtain B = M^(-1)A, where: M^(-1) = 1/9 {{c-b+1, -3, -a+1, b}, {-c+2b-1, 0, c-b+a, -a-b+1}, {a-1, 3, -b, -c+b-1}, {-b+3, 3, -a+b+1, c+1}} So we do indeed get Binet-like formulae for P,Q,R and S, for i, k in Z and j in N. But the story doesn't quite end there. What would happen if you try to use these formulae for negative values of j? Do we just get nonsense? We no longer get integer outputs for P, Q, R and S, we get 3-adic rationals in general, but they do indeed allow you to express negative powers of y as a linear combination of 1, x, y and z for three of the four solutions (x,y,z). And the formula actually works correctly! I don't currently have a complete explanation as to why, but I did observe one thing. If y =/= 0, we can obtain a new relation z = x+1. We see this relation is indeed satisfied by three of the four solutions, but is not satisfied by the solution (1,0,-1), so perhaps this additional relation is enough to show that the Binet formulae indeed works for three of the four solutions for negative values of j.
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  5965. You can paint an infinitely long fence as far as you like with just one (finite) tin of paint. Assume the fence consists of an infinite number of identical finite sections. Use half the tin to paint the first section, then half of the remaining paint to paint the second section, then half of what remains to paint the third section, and so on for as many sections as you like. The thickness of paint on any section will be half the thickness of that on the previous section, so every section you painted will be covered in paint, yet there will always be some paint left in the tin at the end. It is similar to painting the inside of Gabriel's horn by introducing paint into it. The thickness of the paint at any point on the inner surface is equal to the radius of the horn at that point, being ⅟ₓ at point x on the axis. Starting with a pot of π volume units of paint, fill the section from x=1 to x=2. This will use half the pot, the paint thickness varying from 1 to ½. Then fill the section from x=2 to x=4. This will take half of the remaining paint at a thickness from ½ to ¼. Continue with the next section from x=4 to x=8, and so on. Each section is twice as long as the previous one, but only requires half the quantity of paint, so you can fill/paint as far as you like but there will always be some paint left in the pot. Since the paint thickness varies inversely with length from the "mouth" there will always be some paint on the inner surface of the horn that you have painted so far, and you can carry on "painting" the horn like this indefinitely from the same pot of paint.
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  6017. Another grand video brimming with Mathologer's characteristic good cheer and containing several playful challenges for the audience. The content is quite accessible, despite coming from relatively recent mathematical literature. "This is not the Discovery Channel" was my favorite quote. Kudos to Bjarne Fich for rising to Burkard's challenge and creating such a professional Arctic Circle animation. Here is my response to Mathologer's request for feedback. Challenge 1: No, removing 2 black & 2 green squares will not always yield a tile-able board. For example, removing (2,1) and (1,2) leaves (1,1) isolated. Challenge 2: If m & n are odd, then ( j, k ) = ( (m+1)/2, (n+1)/2 ) yields a zero term in the product. Challenge 3: 2xn squares yield (1,2,3,5,8,...) tilings for n=(1,2,3,4,5). This sequence follows the Fibonacci rule. To see why, observe that T(n+1), the number of tilings for n+1, can be computed by adding the number of tilings with the last domino vertical, which is T(n), and the number of tilings with the last two dominoes horizontal, which is T(n-1). Aha! Challenge 4: The determinant for Tristan's glasses gives 666. By drawing the 4 ways of tiling around the holes I get the same result, but have yet to see why the determinant formula should work when the holes themselves can be tiled. Challenge 5: Previous comments allowed me to see why a hexagon tiling must be split evenly into the 3 tile orientations. Unfortunately, I did not see this for myself. Most of the video was clear. However, I am mystified as to why the dance yields all possible tilings, and why, for example, a pair of adjacent 2x2 squares don't count as a 2x4 rectangle. Mathologer dropped some clues, but I guess I need to consult the references. Looking forward to more great content in 2021!
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  6025. When I was a child, my dad bought a bunch of stuff from an auction, and among it was a large-diameter (maybe three or four inches; I don't know my artillery history) shell casing, such as from an artillery gun. But not an intact shell casing, quite -- nope, this one was half crushed, into precisely the type of lantern pattern you show here, but crushed vertically, parallel to the straight sides of the cylinder, to the very extreme limit of the strength of the material. It was made of. Steel? Bronze? Brass? I don't know my artillery composition, either. Someone once expressed the opinion that this casing had been crushed by getting caught in the ejection mechanism when fired, which I suppose is possible (though I don't know my artillery mechanisms), but It seems to me that the crush pattern was much more uniform than I would think an accident would produce. Surely wouldn't an accidental crushing produce some bit of bias, a tilt to one side or some other non-uniformity in the bucklings? Or does the math prohibit that and force an all-or-nothing symmetry? So someone else suggested it was a deliberate artwork, such as you have begun to produce in your final footage of that soft drink can which you score with the piece of wood. (Thank you for that, incidentally, I've been looking for a start on that technique most of my life. Score the can as you have done, then press it from above, and you can make quite an attractive little vase for some pretty flowers, exactly the way my mother used that shell casing in my youth.) I'm also surprised you can't compensate for the buckling inward of the triangles by simply calculating and applying a correction factor in determining their contributions to the surface area of the cylinder. You know the normal vector along which the surface area must point, and you should be able to calculate the normal vectors to each triangle in the lantern pattern, and from the supply a (sine theta?) correction factor to each off-normal triangle's surface area contribution. Is it simply that that technique was outside the scope of this video? I find it hard to believe you wouldn't at least mention it in passing. Or is there some other mathematical dragon that arises to defeat the valiant knight who attempts this correction? One could even envision cutting the surface of the cylinder as though to unwrap it, then examining the zigzag/seesaw pattern formed by the cross-sections of the lantern pattern at each point in its back and forth cycle, then figure out some way to correct for that, as a whole, and apply that correction to the summation over all the triangles. Now, damn it, either you need to make a video discussing this, or I'm going to have to try it myself.
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  6099. 24:13 proof: let us form a sequence of integers that are used to generate the sequence 1, 2, 5, 7, 12, ..... (let this be sequence 1) using the formula f(n) = n(3n-1)/2 in same specific order. which is: 1, -1, 2, -2, 3, -3, ....n, -n, (n+1), -(n+1), .....(let this be sequence 2). now take a note of the n, -n, (n+1), -(n-1) (let this be genSeq1) part cause that gives us the generalization of the sequence we need for every 'n'. we can deduct the result for the difference between 2 consecutive numbers from sequence 1 by breaking the problem into 2 cases. case 1: difference between 2 numbers from sequence 1, where those 2 numbers are obtained by a +ve number followed by a -ve number respectively. now, the difference can be expressed as f(-n) - f(n) (n and -n are taken according to genSeq1) . which gives us: diff(+ve followed by - ve) = (-n(3(-n) - 1)/2 - n(3n-1)/2) => diff(+ve followed by - ve) = ((3n^2 +n) /2 - (3n^2-n)/2) => diff(+ve followed by - ve) = (3n^2 + n - 3n^2 + n))/2 => diff(+ve followed by - ve) = n which means that the difference between the two numbers that are obtained by plugging +n and -n into f(n) is 'n' itself. case 2: difference between 2 numbers from sequence 1, where those 2 numbers are obtained by a -ve number followed by a +ve number respectively. now, the difference can be expressed as f(n+1) - f(-n) (-n and n+1 are taken according to genSeq1) . which gives us: diff(-ve followed by +ve) = ((n+1)(3(n+1) - 1)/2 - (-n)(3(-n)-1)/2) => diff(-ve followed by +ve) = ((3(n+1)^2 - (n+1)) /2 - (3n^2+n)/2) => diff(-ve followed by +ve) = (3n^2 + 6n + 3 -n -1 - 3n^2 - n))/2 => diff(-ve followed by +ve) = (4n +2)/2 => diff(-ve followed by +ve) = 2n + 1 which means that the difference between the two numbers that are obtained by plugging - n and (n+1) into f(n) is '2n +1'.
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  6125. There's actually a nice formula for the partial sums that can be derived as follows: We want to find 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + ... + 1/n. Replacing the numerators with x^(denominator) gives us the function g(x) = x/1 + (x^2)/2 + (x^3)/3 + ... + (x^n)/n. So g(1) is our desired value and g(0)=0. Then, we may take the derivative of this polynomial giving g'(x) = 1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^(n-1). We're going to exploit that this has a nice closed form expression. To see this, multiply each side by (x-1): (x - 1)g'(x) = (x - 1)(1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^n) = (x + x^2 + x^3 + ... + x^n) - (1 + x + x^2 + ... + x^(n-1)) = x^n - 1, so g'(x) = (x^n - 1)/(x - 1). Now, by the fundamental theorem of calculus, we may integrate this function to get our result: ∫[0,1] (x^n - 1)/(x - 1) dx = ∫[0,1] g'(x) dx = g(1) - g(0) = g(1). Thus this integral is our final formula. I think Euler was the first one to find this, though I only know it because I happened to rediscover it in high school. This method can also be extended to the partial sums of this series for higher powers. For instance, 1/1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + ... + 1/n^2 = ∫[0,1] (1/y) * ∫[0,y] (x^n - 1)/(x - 1) dxdy. The interesting thing about these higher power examples is that they actually converge, and that the integral forms reflect this: 1/1 + 1/4 + 1/9 + ... = ∫[0,1] (1/y) * ∫[0,y] -1/(x - 1) dxdy = ∫[0,1] (1/y) * (-ln(1-y)) dy = pi^2/6. Obviously proving that last integral equality isn't trivial, but I think this comment is long enough so I'll leave it there.
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  6264. His proof didn't rely on the 10 numbers at all (besides that they were between 10 and 99, inclusive), so it works for any collection of 10 numbers in the range. The way this works is that he way overcounts the "possible sums". This is essentially like overcounting the number of pigeonholes. This is not a problem, though! Even overcounting the number of pigeonholes, we still have fewer pigeonholes than pigeons, so we know that at least one of the pigeonholes has to have at least two pigeons in it. How does this work? He considers the lowest possible sum you could have. If your set of 10 numbers includes the number 10, then the lowest possible sum you could have is 10 itself. If your set of 10 numbers does not include the number 10, then the smallest possible sum will be larger than 10, since 10 is the smallest number possible. So 10 is the lowest possible sum you could have. With most sets of 10 numbers, the true smallest sum will be larger than 10. Similarly, he considers the largest possible sum you could have. If your set of 10 numbers includes the numbers 91-99, then the largest possible sum you could have is 91+92+...+99 = 855. If your set of 10 numbers does not include every number from 91 to 99, inclusive, then the largest possible sum you could have will be smaller than 855, since 91-99 are the 9 largest numbers possible. With most sets of 10 numbers, the true largest sum will be smaller than 855. So, we know that, no matter what 10 numbers you get, there is no way to have a sum smaller than 10 and no way to have a sum larger than 855. So, no matter what 10 numbers you get, any possible sum is between 10 and 855, inclusive. So there are 846 possible values of a sum we are considering here. With a fixed set of 10 numbers, there are way fewer options, but here, these 846 options account for any possible set of 10 numbers you could have. Now, when you have 10 different numbers, there are exactly 2^10 = 1024 subsets of these 10 different numbers, including having none of them and having all of them. Since we only want to consider nonempty (and hence also non-full) subsets, there are 1022 possible subsets of a fixed collection of 10 different numbers. Counting the number of nonempty non-full subsets does not at all depend on what the numbers are - just how many of them there are. So his count is accurate. So, no matter what 10 numbers you get, there are only 1022 possible subsets of them. Also, no matter what 10 numbers you get, there are only 846 possible values you could have as a sum. So at least one of those sum values must have two subsets corresponding to it. There are, therefore, at least two subsets with the same sum.
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  6400.  @MonstraG55  So, I once heard someone describe common ways to solve a hard mathematics problem. Sometimes we can add structure to a problem in order to make it easier. For example, if you had an 8x8 grid and you removed two opposite corners and wanted to tile the remaining grid with 2x1 or 1x2 pieces, could you do this? One way to solve the problem is to add structure to it - imagine the 8x8 grid is a chess board, where squares alternate colors. Then the two opposite corners are the same color, so it's not possible because 1x2 or 2x1 pieces always take up 1 of each color (this is essentially the argument used at the beginning of this Mathologer video: watch?v=Yy7Q8IWNfHM). So adding structure (color) to the grid helped us solve the problem. But sometimes removing structure from a problem can help us solve the problem. The example I heard for this possible way of solving a problem is to imagine you have a log which is 1 meter long. And you drop a bunch of ants onto this log. The ants are all on a single line on this log (lined up with the log, so 1 meter long) and they always move along this line. All ants move at a constant speed of 1 meter per minute. Suppose that if two ants run into each other (going opposite directions), then both ants turn around and move in the opposite direction. What is the maximum amount of time it will take until all of the ants walk off the log? It's a hard problem, but there's a nice insight. If two ants are walking toward each other, collide, and both turn around, this is the same situation as if the ants are able to pass through each other. (The ant moving left switches roles with the ant that was originally moving right but turned around to move left, and vice versa.) So we can remove this whole requirement about ants turning around when they collide and can solve a new problem where ants pass through each other. Then the answer becomes easy. The longest it can possibly take is 1 minute, since that's the longest it can take an ant to get from one end of the log to the other. That's what's happening in this scenario with chapter 6 in this video. We can remove structure from the problem. We want to find two non-overlapping sets with the same sum. That seems hard to do, so let's remove part of the problem. Remove the requirement that they're non-overlapping. If we are able to find any two different sets that have the same sum, then we can just remove their overlap (removing the same amount preserves the equalities of the sum). So really, all we have to do is fine two different subsets of the same sum. We don't have to do everything at once. We don't have to use the pigeonhole principle to guarantee that there are two non-overlapping sets with the same sum - we just have to use the pigeonhole principle to guarantee two sets with the same sum. The existence of two sets with the same sum guarantees the existence of two non-overlapping sets with the same sum. So we're done once we put these two facts together.
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  6656. Dear Prof Polster I have studied science (including Maths) upto the 12th standard and subsequently graduated as a Bachelor in Engineering. Currently working as a senior software developer in a multinational firm in the UK. Never studied abstract algebra as part of curriculum. I learnt solving cubic and quartic equations out of personal interest when I was in school, at the same time perhaps I was taught quadratic equations. At that time I did not know quintics are not solvable in radicals. I watch your videos with great interest. I learnt the basics of abstract algebra watching various channels on youtube. These channels offer excellent introduction to group theory and insolvability of quintic equations with examples - but in the end I am not able to perceive the exact connection between solvability in radicals and the descending tower of subgroups or why the quotient groups need to be cyclic. I eventually found an excellent article FranzSenEx2010.pdf on the internet which seems to answer my questions - but I am unable to fully appreciate due to lack of any formal training in abstract algebra. (e.g it cites various theorems on isomorphism but the examples are not detailed enough for me to visualize). Your step by step approach with images is of great help to someone like myself whose enthusiam does not match his skills. Accordingly can I request you to consider making videos on the Insolvability of Quintic equation by Galois theory explaining the precise link between solvalibity of an equation and the descending tower of the subgroups and why these need to have certain properties. (Is it possible to demonstrate by group theory the simpler cases e.g. a quadritic equation is not solvable unless radicals are introduced, or first degree equations ax + b = 0 not solvable unless rational numbers are introduced). And also on Abel's proof (I have read Peter Pesic's book - but there is not enough commentry on the proof) Regards
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  6741. About all the details that were skipped over in the visual sum = ln(2) proof: First of all, to show that the sum up to the n-th positive number is equal to the sum of rectangle n up to rectangle 2n-1, a simple inductive argument: The sum up to the first positive number is just 1 (so rectangle 1 up to 1). Then, to get from the n-th positive term to the (n+1)-th positive term, you're adding (1/(2n) - 1/n) + 1/(2n+1). Subtracting -1/n removes rectangle n, so the sum now starts at rectangle n+1, and adding 1/(2n)+1/(2n+1) adds rectangles 2n and 2n+1, so the sum now goes up to 2(n+1)-1. Now let's say the left-most edge of a given rectangle starts at x. It will therefore have a height of y=1/x. If you squish the rectangle by a factor of n and stretch it horizontally by that same factor, and instead of chosing the corner of the rectangle as the fix-point of the scaling, you choose the origin x=0, then the rectangle will move to x'=x/n, and the new height will be y'=n y. With this, the new rectangle also follows the law y' = n 1/x = 1/(x/n) = 1/x'. This transformation will also move all the rectangles to horizontally fill the interval [1,2], as the first rectangle with x=n will be moved to x'=n/n=1, and the last rectangle with x=2n-1 will be moved to x'=(2n-1)/n=2-1/n, so its right-most edge will be at 2-1/n+1/n=2 because its original width of 1 was squished to 1/n. Therefore, the new rectangles fill the area under the curve 1/x on the interval from 1 to 2, and because all we did was move them around a bit, and squish them by the same factor as we stretched them, the total area didn't change.
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  6756. In the case of the four colour problem: Consider the grid as a set of nodes with coordinates A1 through B2 for the 2x2 case, A1 through D8 for the 4x4 case, et cetera. Choose an arbitrary colour for A1, and a different one for A2 Once A1 and A2 have colours, B1 and B2 must have the two other colours to satisfy the criterium for the A1 through B2 square. Since no distinction has been made between these two colours yet, choose one arbitrarily for B1 and the other for B2. Once B1 and B2 have their colours, C1 and C2 must have the other two colours to satisfy the criterium for the B1 through C2 square. This means that C1 and C2 are now confined to the same colours as A1 and A2, though not necessarily in that order. This pattern of altering pairs continues, with every subsequent pair of squares in a column along the 1- and 2- rows being confined to one of two pairs: the same two colours as A1 and A2 for "odd" letters, and the same two colours as B1 and B2 for "even" letters. Equivalently, once A1 and B1 have their colours, A2 and B2 must have the other two colours to satisfy the criterium for the A1 through B2 square. This logic continues equivalently along the rows exactly equivalent to the case along the rows, and thus ever subsequent pair of squares in a row along the A- and B- columns is confined to one of two pairs: the same two colours as A1 and B1 for odd numbers, and the same two colours as A2 and B2 for even numbers. Therefore, for any given corner alpha in an x by x grid where x is an even number, the corner squares beta and gamma which it shares sides of the grid with must be differently coloured to it, as beta and gamma will each differ from alpha in the evenness of either the row number or of the column number. Thus if we can prove that alpha also differs in colour from its opposite corner delta, then it must differ from all other corners; and if it is true for any given corner that it differs in colour from all other corners, then each corner is uniquely coloured. That part of the proof, however, keeps eluding my 11pm mind and should probably wait until morning
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  6986. DDDDDAAAANNNGGIIIITTTT I wanted to make a video about this! This is something that I had explored myself like three years ago. I came up with many of the insights you presented here. My original motivation was trying to figure out how I can come up with a formula for the sum of squares (up to some point), which had a known formula and you could obviously prove it inductively, but how do get the formula to begin with right? Eventually I thought of the idea to take differences on top of differences... then do linear combinations of the difference sequences you see for 1, x, x^2, x^3, etc to get a formula for an arbitrary sequence (such as the sum of squares up to some term), which only works perfectly if it fizzles out to a constant row of course(or at least, if there is a finite number of interesting rows, you don't have to do any further analysis). There were problems I've come across where I knew the end result should be a polynomial and I needed to do polynomial interpolation, so this was a handy tool for that. At some point I also discovered you can use starting values/diffs of 0,0,0,0,...,1 as your basis instead which turned out to be (n choose h) for "height" h. This also gives you a handy way to do polynomial evaluation without using multiplication, and given this tool you can figure out how to come up with formulas for programs that involve loops where variables just keep adding to other variables in a non-cyclic manner. I will say though, that I probably wouldn't have made this video for quite a while longer(procrastinating...). Some things that I had thought to explore but didn't(because I got distracted by other things)... what if we have infinitely many rows of these difference sequences (which you touched upon). What about trying to interpolate in between the terms, between the rows? What about extending these difference sequences into the real and imaginary axes, can this lead to a reasonable interpretation of summations where the indices are complex numbers, at least for polynomials? What if our input sequence isn't a linear function? I gotta start making videos on my ideas before I get scooped as a result of my own laziness...
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  7188. 3:09 Proof that the shape defined as "the curve y=1/x stays the same curve when you both stretch vertically and squish horizontally by a factor s": A curve y=f(x) stretched vertically by a factor v is just y=v f(x), and squished horizontally by a factor h is just y=f(h x). With that, we can show that in our case, y=s f(s x) still lies on the curve defined by y=f(x), because with f(x)=1/x, y=s 1/(s x) = 1/x = f(x). So the transformed curve is the same as the original curve, making it resistant to shape-shifting, and any section of the curve will turn into another section still on the curve when applying the transformation. 9:00 So you have A(X) and A(Y), and want to stretch A(Y) so that it fits on the right edge of A(X). You know that A(Y) has a height of 1 on the left and A(X) has a height of 1/x on the right, so for them to fit together, you need to vertically stretch A(Y) by a factor of 1/X (aka vertically squish by a factor of X). The bottom edge of A(Y) originally had the length Y-1 (because the edge goes from 1 to Y), but because we want the new shape to fit the 1/x curve, we also need to stretch it horizontally by X after having squished it by that amount. So the bottom length of the new A(Y) will be X(Y-1) = XY - X. The resulting total shape after adding A(X) and the transformed A(Y) together will fill the curve until the point where A(X) ends plus the length of the transformed A(Y), so in total, X + XY - X = XY. Per definition of A, this area is A(XY). But we also know that this area is just A(X) + A(Y), because the transformed A(Y) has the same area as the original. 10:47 Proof that it works for all integers: If log(XY)=log(X)+log(Y) for all (X, Y), then 0=log(1)=log(X/X)=log(X) + log(1/X), and therefore, log(1/X)=-log(X), and by extension, log(X^-N)=-log(X^N)= -N log(X). For the exponent 0, you can just use log(X^0)=log(1)=0=0 log(X). For rational powers of X, so for the rule p/q log(X)=log(X^(p/q)), we can take log(X^p)=(q log(X^p))/q =(pq log(X))/q=p/q log(X^q). Now in that equation, substitute Y=X^q (which implies X=Y^1/q), and you get log(Y^p/q) = p/q log(Y). This equation must hold for all Y, because any Y can be expressed in terms of X using the earlier substitution rule. For irrational exponents, you can argue that the logarithm must be continuous on any compact interval, as 1/x is continuous as well, and because the rationals are dense in the reals, that shows that the rule must also be true for any real number.
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  7254. Split-complex numbers relate to the diagonality (like how it's expressed on Anakin's lightsaber) of ring/cylindrical singularities and to why the 6 corner/cusp singularities in dark matter must alternate. Dual numbers relate to Euler's Identity, where the thin mass is cancelling most of the attractive and repulsive forces. The imaginary number is mass in stable particles of any conformation. In Big Bounce physics, dual numbers relate to how the attractive and repulsive forces work together to turn the matter that we normally think of into dark matter. Complex numbers = vertical asymptote. Split-complex numbers = vertical tangent. Dual numbers = vertical line. These algebras can be simply thought of as tensors. Delanges sectrices can be thought of as opposites of vertical asymptotes. Ceva sectrices as opposites of vertical tangents, and Maclaurin sectrices as opposites of vertical lines. The natural logarithm of the imaginary number is pi divided by 2 radians times i. This means that, at whatever point of stable matter other than at a singularity, the attractive or repulsive force being emitted is perpendicular to the "plane" of mass. In Big Bounce physics, this corresponds to how particles "crystalize" into stacks where a central particle is greatly pressured to degenerate by another particle that is in front, another behind, another to the left, another to the right, another on top, and another below. Dark matter is formed quickly afterwards. Ramanujan Infinite Sum (of the natural numbers): during a Big Crunch, the smaller, central black holes, not the dominating black holes, are about a twelfth of the total mass involved. Dark matter has its singularities pressed into existence, while baryonic matter is formed by its singularities. This also relates to 12 stacked surrounding universes that are similar to our own "observable universe" - an infinite number of stacked universes that bleed into each other and maintain an equilibrium of Big Bounce events. i to the i power: the "Big Bang mass", somewhat reminiscent of Swiss cheese, has dark matter flaking off, exerting a spin that mostly cancels out, leaving potential energy, and necessarily in a tangential fashion. This is closely related to what the natural logarithm of the imaginary number represents. Mediants are important to understanding the Big Crunch side of a Big Bounce event. Black holes have locked up, with these "particles" surrounding and pressuring each other. Black holes get flattened into unstable conformations that can be considered fractions, to form the dark matter known from our Inflationary Epoch. Sectrices are inversely related, as they deal with dark matter being broken up, not added like the implosive, flattened "black hole shrapnel" of mediants. Ford circles relate to mediants. Tangential circles, tethered to a line. Sectrices: the families of curves deal with black holes and dark matter. (The Fibonacci spiral deals with how dark matter is degenerated/broken up, with supernovae, and forming black holes. The Golden spiral deals with black holes being flattened into dark matter during a Big Bounce event.) The Archimedean spiral deals with black holes and their spins before and after a reshuffling from cubic to the most dense arrangement, during a Big Crunch. The Dinostratus quadratrix deals with the dark matter being broken up by ripples of energy imparted by outer (of the central mass) black holes, allowing the dark matter to unstack, and the laminar flow of dark matter (the Inflationary Epoch) and dark matter itself being broken up by lingering black holes. Delanges sectrices (family of curves): dark matter has its "bubbles" force a rapid flaking off - the main driving force of the Big Bang. Ceva sectrices (family of curves): spun up dark matter breaks into primordial black holes and smaller, galactic-sized dark matter and other, typically thought of matter. Maclaurin sectrices (family of curves): dark matter gets slowed down, unstable, and broken up by black holes. Jimi Hendrix's "Little Wing". Little wing = Maclaurin sectrix. Butterflies = Ceva sectrix. Zebras = Dinostratus quadratrix. Moonbeams = Delanges sectrix. Jimi was experienced and "tricky". Jimi was commenting on dark matter. How it could be destabilized by being slowed down, spun up, broken up by lingering black holes, or flaked off. (The Delanges trisectrix also corresponds to stable atomic nuclei.) Dark matter, on the stellar scale, are broken up by supernovae. Our solar system was seeded with the heavier elements from a supernova. I'm happily surprised to figure out sectrices. Trisectrices are another thing. More complex (algebras) and I don't know if I have all the curves available to use in analyzing them. I have made some progress, but have more to discern. I can see Fibonacci spirals relating to the trisectrices. The Clausen function of order 2: black holes and rarified singularities are becoming more and more commonplace. Doyle's constant for the potential energy of a Big Bounce event: 21.892876 Also known as e to the (e + 1/e) power. At the eth root of e, the black holes are stacked as densely as possible. I suspect Ramanujan's Infinite Sum connects a reshuffling from the solution to the Basel problem and a transfer of mass to centralized black holes. Other than the relatively small amount of kinetic energy of black holes being flattened into dark matter, the only energy is potential energy, then: 1 (squared)/(e to the e power), dark matter singularities have formed and thus with the help of Ramanujan, again, create "bubbles", leading to the Big Bang part of the Big Bounce event. My constant is the chronological ratio of these events. This ratio applies to potential energy over kinetic energy just before a Big Bang event. Methods of arbitrary angle trisection: Neusis construction relates to how dark matter has its corner/cusp singularities create "bubbles", driving a Big Bang event. Repetitious bisection relates to dark matter spinning so violently that it breaks, leaving smaller dark matter, primordial black holes, and other more familiar matter, and to how black holes can orbit other black holes and then merge. It also relates to how dark matter can be slowed down. Belows method (similar to Sylvester's Link Fan) relates to black holes being locked up in a cubic arrangement just before a positional jostling fitting with Ramanujan's Infinite Sum. General relativity: 8 shapes, as dictated by the equation? 4 general shapes, but with a variation of membranous or a filament? Dark matter mostly flat, with its 6 alternating corner/cusp edge singularities. Neutrons like if a balloon had two ends, for blowing it up. Protons with aligned singularities, and electrons with just a lone cylindrical singularity? Prime numbers in polar coordinates: note the missing arms and the missing radials. Matter spiraling in, degenerating? Matter radiating out - the laminar flow of dark matter in an Inflationary Epoch? Corner/cusp and ring/cylinder types of singularities. Connection to Big Bounce theory? "Operation -- Annihilate!", from the first season of the original Star Trek: was that all about dark matter and the cosmic microwave background radiation? Anakin Skywalker connection?
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  7359. I think I know an even prettier proof of Euler's polyhedra formula. Take an arbitrary convex polyhedra and imagine that it is a planet floating in space and put a small dimple at the center of each face. Now introduce some water by crashing a few comets into the planet, turning those dimples into lakes. The planet now has F lakes (one for each face) on a single (1) land mass. The next step is to continue smashing comets into the planet, gradually increasing the water level. The water level will rise as if it were a sphere growing out from the center of the planet. The lake closest to the center will grow first right up until it encroaches on an edge. At that point, the water will spill over and join with the lake on the adjoining edge. Two lakes become one. This process of fusion will repeat multiple times at each edge and at some point a lake will grow so large that it wraps around the planet, separated only by a single edge. When the water level rises above that edge, the lake fuses with ITSELF, forming an ocean that splits the landmass in two. Lake fusions and ocean formations continue to happen until every edge has been partially covered by water. Now the planet has a single (1) ocean and V islands, one for each vertex. There must have been (F-1) lake mergers to take the planet from F lakes to 1 ocean. And there must have been (V-1) ocean / island formations to take the planet from a 1 landmass to V islands. And every one of these events happened at a unique edge. Therefore (F-1) + (V-1) = E, or F-E+V=2.
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  7373. The L1 metric (taxicab metric) is an interesting thing to bring up - I’ve thought about it too, as part of preparation of this video. Since (R³,||.||₁) is not an inner product space, there is no natural way to define “normal”. Also, the set of isometries (or rigid motions) of this space is a lot less interesting than for (R³,||.||₂) - basically only translations, reflections and rotations that preserve the “grid” - no arbitrary rotations. Due to both of these it is a lot harder to get a sense of what the area of an arbitrary parallelogram is - you can’t compare it to a length x width rectangle in the same plane because right angles rely on inner products, and you can’t compare it to a rectangle in the coordinate plane because there is no guarantee of an isometry that carries the parallelogram into a congruent parallelogram in the xy-plane. Without this fundamental idea settled, measuring surface area of a curved surface (using some sort of integral of areas of infinitesimal parallelograms) has a hard time getting started. I think the only natural way to measure surface area in this space is via the “how much paint” method discussed in some recent mathologer videos in normal Euclidean space. We can define volume in (R³,||.||₁) geometrically, and for a surface S, the set T of points within ε of S is a volume we can measure. So consider the limit of T/(2ε) as ε -> 0. I haven’t investigated this myself beyond this, and I don’t know if anyone has.
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  7489. Triangle lover here.. This is marvellous. Thank you so much I am very surprised this was not 'known'. It seems that it must have been known at some level or other by people making things - in cloth or clay - in tiles, especially in China, Japan, Korea, India and especially Hindu Buddhism or Islam where geometric repetition in huge number and scale are central to sacred geometric patterns, architectural relationships and texture. Cut and fold with paper cloth wood, clay or fired ceramic.. glass tiles/windows ? Embroidery, patchwork, quilting String and stick tools used as templates and jigs. Musical instrument makers workshop ? All the natural patterns that derive from simple folding, repeats or recursive actions, or string straight edge and compass. Angle dividers... My feeling is It would be hard not to know or have met this this in many ways But might never have been presented, or kept and translated across the slik roads, libraries Alexandria Istanbul Italy Germany France and England when renaissance printing took off. Hope we get a superfast Visual-Math AI tool to search across imagery via time culture place pattern/ and perhaps even in number system counting ? scaling tricks for people who make things ? Thank you for this channel and your videos inspiring! I've seen on TikTok neat triangular vertex-hinged shutters transform from door to an open gateway. This pattern is very scifi. Now I want to try to use the geometry you present here to make a human sized set of experiments here at my studio
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  7611. I was wondering if there would be any proofs along Symmetry groups. If we pose the problem as minimizing the Sum { abs(weight'*(A^n*start - J*A^(n + 1)*start)) } where n = 0..#eyelets -1. (We are summing the lengths of individual segments.) [A] is the rotation matrix that defines which eyelets are linked where A(i,j) = 1 if there is a link connecting ith eyelet to the jth eyelet, otherwise A(i,j) = 0. J is a (#eyelets)x(#eyelets) square matrix whose antidiagonal (northeast-southwest) elements are unity and all other elements are zero (the exchange matrix.) 'weight' is a vector where weight(i) = i-1 (that is made of the numbers 0,1,2...#eyelets.) 'start' is a vector whose first element is unity other elements are zero. By defining the problem this way we see that the problem has a rotational symmetry: Shoelace length is invariant regardless where we start measuring. We need to find [A] (the permutation group) that results in the minimum length shoelace while making sure that each link crosses to the other side by the use of the 'weight' vector. Refactoring the cost function as minimize Sum { abs(weight'*(1 - J*A)*A^n*start) } we see that (1 - J*A)*A^n*start selects columns of (1 - J*A) successively.This suggests that matrix [A] should be symmetric about northeast-southwest diagonal and non-zero elements should be as close to this diagonal as possible. This approach could be used to find the minimum shoelace length using integer programming, but it certainly is not a proof. I wonder if this idea can be worked towards a proof.
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  7620. Regarding the first problem you postulated, the answer I got is that, for N cards, then N*(N+1)/2 , (the triangular numbers!) is the maximum number of steps to finish the game. I'm trying to construct a rigurous proof, but I have failed so far. But, at least, I want to present an intuitive argument of why I think this should be the case. First, for N=1, it's easy, just one step, and the formula holds. :) Now, let us assume that for N cards, this result is valid. What happens when we have N+1 cards?. An intuitive idea would be that we leave the first card (the one at the extreme left) alone for the moment, and we take as much steps as possible before we are forced to flip that card. So, with the rest of the N cards, we take the most possible number of steps to flip those, which is, by inductive hypothesis N*(N+1)/2. So, we end with the following scenario: 1 0 ... 0 0 So, in this case, it is straight forward what happens next: we just have one card, and the rest of the moves are just 1 0 ... 0 0 0 1 ... 0 0 ... 0 0 ... 1 0 0 0 ... 0 1 0 0 ... 0 0 So, we have N+1 steps to finish the game from this state. And, of course (N*(N+1)/2) + (N+1) = (N+1)(N+2)/2, which yields the desired result. Of course, this proof is NOT complete, because the obvious question would be: "Well, what happens if you flip the first card earlier?", and I've noticed that indeed, taking other strategies, we can also obtain (N+1)(N+2)/2 steps. The argument I'm currently working on is proving that, if you make a flip in any other point of the maximal sequence, you would end up in some corresponding step of the first maximal sequence of steps at best, or in, the worst case scenario, in a faster sequence of moves. For example, let us consider the following flip: 1 1 ... 1 1 0 0 ... 1 1 In this case, the first two card would be, effectively, out of the game, and you couldn't optimize the number of moves for N cards, because then you would only have N-1 "active" cards as maximum. So, I think my answer is correct, but I'm currently working in the rigurous proof of why this formula should work for all possible strategies. Thanks for the video, BTW!. Great format, is always a pleasure to watch your content.
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  7632. 2:00 and it's ALREADY genius :) any two consecutive are different colors, so when a color is missing there could not be any solution. I was searching for a hard demonstration as proof but suddenly when you said "hardly" I felt myself stupid as it was obvious and as a chess player I knew opposite where same color very well. But what is even more amazing is that if we started with a colorless problem, then just adding the color for demonstration would be a crazy smart and clever idea. I wonder how many problem do have very complicated demonstrations that would be very easy to demonstrate with the same kind of smart ideas, but we failed to see? Maybe there are a lot. I remember when I used to code, that sometimes when you try hard to reduce the length of your code, you can find the same kind of unexpected ideas to success. This kind of success makes one coder very happy when he finds it. And very ashamed if someone else tells him he missed one. And again I wonder how many terawatts we would save wordly on computers if we knew and used all the possible smart shortcuts of this kind. Maybe we miss alot. How to know? Maybe we missed a few that are real gale changers for humanity. And anyway, there are some people who have found some very hard ones, and these people did a great service but most are unknown. I'dd love a video about this one day. Maybe some mathematicians have found some mathematics/probabilities or such that give an idea of how much we miss and how to help find these?
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  7771. There's something extra special going on with those approximations. With pi, for example, Wolfram lists the following approximations. 3/1, 22/7, 333/106, 355/113, 103993/33102, 104348/33215,... First: if you check the spirals corresponding to these fractions, you'll notice they alternate between spinning left and spinning right. (I'm too lazy to say CW or CCW/ACW/whatever) This is why 333/106 is listed even though 355/113 gets even closer for pretty much the same bang for your buck: the spirals must alternate in direction. The reason for this will be clear by the end of this post. Next: these fractions also correspond to evaluating the continued fractions. Related to that point is how they appear on the microscope: 3/1 is the first good approximation, and at the beginning the spiral just looks like one arm. Then as you zoom in, the approximation loops over itself until a better approximation appears: 22/7. The seven arms. Then the arms continue to loop over and twist among themselves until the next one over lines up nicely. This becomes 333/106 and 355/113. Notice what this means on the algebraic side: 22/7 = (7 * 3 + 1) / (7 * 1 + 0) 333/106 = (15 * 22 + 3) / (15 * 7 + 1) 355/113 = (1 * 333 + 22) / (1 * 106 + 7) 103993/33102 = (292 * 355 + 333) / (292 * 113 + 106) 104348/33215 = (1 * 103993 + 355) / (1 * 33102 + 113) For starters, this comes directly from the continued fraction. But now the connection between the microscope and the continued fraction is more obvious. Given the sequence A1/B1, A2/B2, the next term A3/B3 would be: (M * A2 + A1) / (M * B2 + B1) The logic for the denominator is this: B2 represents how many spirals there were on the last iteration, and B1 how many spirals before that. When the spirals loop over, the spiral that approaches is labelled B1, and it comes over in tiny steps of B2. This also explains the alternating nature of where the spirals curve. B1 must be opposite to B2's spin. Idk it's midnight I'm yapping and idk if this is correct
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  7956. transcribed problem: The inhabitants of little Wurzelfold have been considerably roused out of their lethargy by the great war. Like the rest of the world, they talk of little else, so it is natural that the particular conversation which we have to relate should have a distinct material flavor. The little group of villagers gathered together in the red lion Inn where all respectable neighbor whose ages may safely be said to range from 50 to 70 years. All fir young men of the village had enlisted, and the opinion was lead by everyone that if the English Navy and Army did not in consequence "knock the Germans into a cocked hat", it was not the fault of little Wurzelfold. There is no necessity to introduce the reader individually to these estimable men, drawn together by bonds of mutual sympathy and desire to forget their anxieties in pleasant intercourse. We are entirely concerned with the curious riddles and proses that, without any premeditation, happened to be forthcoming on the particular occasion of which we write. "I was talking the other day" said William Rogers to the other villagers gathered round the Inn fire, "to a gentleman about that place called Louvain, what well– used to visit a Belgian friend there. He said the house of his friend was in a long street numbered on his side one, two, three, and so on, and that all the numbers of him added up exactly the same as all the numbers on the other side of him. Funny thing that! He said he knew there was more than fifty houses on that side of the street, but not so many as five hundred. I made mention of the matter to our parson, and he took a pencil and worked out the number of the house where the Belgian lived. I don't know how he done it." Perhaps the reader may like to discover the number of that house. "That reminds me," said James Woodhouse " of Miss Wilkinson, down Bradford way. She promised to make a lot of red crosses, and to stitch 'em on to white bands for hospital nurses at the war. She bought a lot o material and started cuttin' out all the crosses. When she had done it she found that by mistake she'd made em just twice as big as they ought for to be. She is very economical, as you may say, is so she went to the schoolmaster and asked him how she was to cut each cross into two crosses of the same shape. He showed her an artful way of doing it in five pieces so that both crosses should be of one size, and no waste. He's a sharp man, I reckon." It is true that the red cross can be cut into five pieces that will form the two crosses shown in our first diagram.
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  8076. I first ran into this in 1st year university. Needless to say it has provoked endless conversations and disagreements, some of which get somewhat heated (all in good fun though). So when I asked my Calculus prof about this (back in the 70's) he gave me an answer which made me seriously re-think about what we really mean by area when applied to a curved surface. He simply said the we may not understand area on a curved surface as well as we think we do. Because, as we all know, area is defined - square meter- on a FLAT surface like the rectangle. But when we apply that unit to a curved surface we have to distort it (stretch it) to make it lie on the curved surface - and then all heck breaks loose. And, as you correctly point out, we are dealing with an "ideal" paint so squeezing some molecule into the horn just doesn't apply here. On the other hand, the volume of the horn is based on the flat definition of volume (3 dimensional - but still "flat" space). And that means the volume concept does NOT have to be distorted or stretched when measuring the space inside of the horn. The inside of the horn simple lives in flat space. Whereas the surface area lives in curved space. And, yes, I know that as you make a small area on the curved surface shrink and shrink the more and more it starts to look and behave like a flat surface - but it really never does become flat - certainly not in the macro world. BTW, I know Mathematics Teachers who are still convinced that: .9999...... = 1 is a "paradox". But it really isn't. Infinity is not a number nor a place, it's just weird. Thanks so much for all your work. I really do like your approach.
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  8170. I'm not sure if I would consider this as a proof or a postulate. The Pythagorean Theorem is Embedded within both the addition (+) and assignment, equality, identity operator (=). I'll start with the later. We can take the simplest expression y = x. Depending on context this expression or statement is stating that either two quantities are equivalent, or that we are assigning x to y. I also call it identity since nothing within the expression has changed. Here's a list of our pairs {..., (-1,-1), (0,0), (1,1), ...} We know that y = x is also linear from the slope-intercept y = mx+b where b is the y-intercept and m is the slope defined by (y2-y1)/(x2-x1) = dy/dx. The graph of the line bisects the XY plane in the 1st and 3rd quadrants. Since the x and y-axes are perpendicular or orthogonal to each other making a right angle of 90 degrees or PI/2 radians at the origin (0,0) we know that this line has a 45 degree or PI/4 radian angle that is between the line y = x and the +x-axis giving us an angle in standard form with respect to the origin. We also know that the slope of this line is 1. If we set the length of this line to 1 going from the origin (0,0) to some point (x,y) and draw a vertical line down from (x,y) to the +x-axis we end up with the coordinate ( sqrt(2)/2, sqrt(2)/2 ) and the lengths of x and y are sqrt(2)/2. We can take the slope formula dy/dx and simply use (x,y) since (x1,y1) = (0,0). We can see that (sqrt(2)/sqrt(2)) = 1 since sin(45)/cos(45) = tan(45) = 1. Here the angle theta (t) is the angle with respect to the line y = mx+b, the origin and the +x-axis. With this we can substitute the slope m = dy/dx with sin(t)/cos(t) = tan(t). This then would give us y = sin(t)/cos(t)x + b and y = tan(t)x + b. Why does this derived substitution from y = x work? This is where the addition operator comes into context. Here we will use the very first and simplest of all mathematical operations 1+1 = 2. With this I'll demonstrate how this expression, equation indirectly satisfies and solves the Pythagorean Theorem and I will also show how it relates to the Equation of the Circle. We know that the Pythagorean Theorem is A^2 + B^2 = C^2 with respect to Right Triangles. We know that the General Equation to the Circle is (x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2 where (x,y) is any point on the circle, (h,k) is the center, and r is the circle's radius. Now let's see this in action. We are going to start from the left and work our way to the right. We are going to define our starting point as the origin (0,0) we will then move to the right 1 unit of arbitrary length to give us a Unit Vector at the coordinate (1,0). Now we are going to horizontally translate this vector in a linear progression towards the right by the magnitude of the original unit vector. This gives us a second unit vector that goes from the points (1,0) to (2,0). Here we have v1 = P1-P0 = (1,0) = (1,0) - (0,0) and v2 = P2-P1 = (2,0) - (1,0) where v1 = v2 = 1 and their combined length = 2. What does this have to do with a circle and the Pythagorean Theorem? It's quite simple. Here we the basis for a unit circle with its center (h,k) located at the point (1,0). We can now use the equation (x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2 and use the center location. (x-1)^2 + (y-0)^2 = 1^2. Rearrange and simplify to y^2 = 1 - (x-1)^2. Expand, y^2 = 1 - (x^2 + 2x) + 1 and simplify then gives y^2 = x^2 - 2x. Solving for y gives us y = sqrt(x^2 - 2x). Here is a sequence of some of the first few values of (x,y): { (0,0), (1,i), (2,0), (3, sqrt(3)), (4, 2*sqrt(2)), (5, sqrt(3)*sqrt(5)), ... } okay this doesn't seem to justify anything. Yet if you noticed, when we plug 1 into the expression we end up with i the sqrt(-1). Why is this happening? This is because the unit circle is located at (1,0) as it is translated to the right by 1 unit. Let's move it to the left by 1 unit placing its center at the origin (0,0). Once we do this the Equation of the Unit Circle then becomes (x-0)^2 + (y-k)^2 = 1^2 which then becomes x^2 + y^2 = 1. Here this is a well known function and this is why the trigonometric functions have a Pythagorean Identity. Let's solve for y: y^2 = 1-x^2 then y = sqrt(1-x^2). We can now generate an equivalent sequence as before: { (0,1), (1,0), (2, i), (3, 2i), (4, 3i), ... (N, (N-1)i) } This is also gives all Real and Complex Numbers and this is why we have the expression e^(PI*i) + 1 = 0 as well as the Taylor series and so on. Also if you look closely at the equation of the circle (x-h)^2 + (y-k)^2 = r^2 this is in fact The Pythagorean Theorem. We know that a circle with a radius of 1 has a diameter of 2 hence 1+1 = 2 and we know that the angle between the point (1,0) to (-1,0) is 180 degrees which equals PI radians. And there you have, basic arithmetic{addition, multiplication, exponentiation, logarithms, etc.}, basic polynomial algebra, linear algebra with vectors & matrices, geometry and trigonometry all expanding from y = x and 1+1 = 2. And with all of these being related, we can extrapolate from them and their various functions and properties that gives us dy/dx the Derivative and with its inverse Integration. So the next time you add 1 and 1 to get 2 or the next time you set a and b equal to each other, remember that there is always a unit circle embedded within it waiting to be expanded and the limits of that expansion reaches +/-infinity! But why Triangles, right angles to be specific? For this we need to jump over to a little bit of Physics. We typically use sine and cosine functions to map or graph wave motion, rotations, oscillations, cycles, etc... We know that both Sound and Light are forms of Energy. In essence the sine and cosine functions are basically Sound and Light waves in motion. We also use them to map or graph rotational energy and or angular momentum. So everytime you speak and sound emits from your mouth, your tongue, and your lips, the energy or vibration moving through the air (medium) is a Sine or Cosine Wave. And both of these functions are defined from both the Right Triangle and the Unit Circle again 1+1 = 2. Numbers don't exist in nature as they are abstract concepts. They are a product of the mind. Yet the equations, formulas, functions, and laws of the sciences require and depend on them and nature adheres to the laws of physics and chemistry. The laws of nature obey Sound and Light, the properties of Circles and Right Triangles and things that wave, rotate and or oscillate. A clock goes tick tock with even intervals and can be represented as 1,0,1,0,1,0... and now we have a binary system. Log 2 mathematics. And it has been proven that Log 2 mathematics with an infinite amount of binary digits (bits) is infact Turing Complete. Math is Grand! Math is a Product of the Mind and the Laws of Nature adhere to the properties of Math. Food for thought! So as you can see, The Pythagorean Theorem has always been long before any human thought that they have discovered it, long before any human existed. Since the properties of such things existed long before Humans, and considering that numbers are conceptual, abstract ideas, products of the mind, then the real question becomes: Whose mind did they originally come from? I can give a hit and it succeeds 1+1 = 2 which pertains to and rhymes with 3. The Divine Trinity! "Let There Be Light!"
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  8436. I learned about casting out 9s on my own reading math books as a kid, they never taught it in school. (Along with how to calculate square roots by hand and other interesting things.) A few quick comments - When making these sorts of diagrams, I think it's nice to, instead of using the numbers 0 through 8, use the numbers -4 through 4. (Or if you're working in something other than modulo 9, it goes from roughly -n/2 through n/2, give or take the parity). The reason is that if you number the diagram that way, with 0 at the top as usual, then you immediately see that 8 = -1 mod 9, 7 = -2 mod 9, 6 = -3 mod 9 and 5 = -4 mod 9, so the left side of the circle is just the negatives of the right side. But since ab mod 9 = (a mod 9) (b mod 9), you get exactly the same diagram as if you used 0 through 8. However, now with those negatives, it's instantly obvious why the diagram is symmetrical about the axis - once you hit a negative number then multiplying it by 2 (or whatever the multiplier is) is going to give you exactly the same result as the corresponding positive number but with the sign flipped. So if you start at 1, make a couple of connections, then hit -1, the following connections are always just the mirrored versions of the ones you just drew. That's why all these diagrams, no matter what multiplier and modulus you use, are symmetrical about the y axis. - Regarding the proof that "casting out nines" works, an alternative quick proof is to notice that 10 = 1 mod 9. So 2578 = 2*10³ + 5*10² + 7*10 + 8 , which modulo 9 is just 2*1 + 5*1 + 7*1 + 8 = 2+5+7+8.
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  8506. My favorite, fairly succinct proof of Fermat’s two-squares theorem goes a little like this: (1): A whole number c can be written as the sum of two squares c=a^2+b^2 if and only if it can be written as (a+bi)*(a-bi), for integers a and b. Complex numbers a+bi with a and b both integers are called Gaussian integers. (2): A number is called a Gaussian prime if its only Gaussian integer factors are itself and 1. Just as every integer can be written uniquely as a product of primes, a Gaussian integer can be written uniquely as a product of Gaussian primes. (I’ll reply to my own comment to prove this later this evening) (3): If a prime number is not a Gaussian prime, it must factor into some (a+bi)*(a-bi), and so it must be a sum of two squares. (4): For a prime p, if we can find some number m such that m^2+1=kp for some integer k, then we have (m+i)(m-i)=kp. (5): But if we multiply p*(x+yi), we always get px+pyi. That means that p is a factor of a Gaussian integer c+di if and only if it is a factor of both c and d. But in (4), p is not a factor m, 1, OR -1, so p is not a factor of m+i or m-i (6) This implies that, if we find m such that m^2+1=kp for any integer k, that means that p is not a Gaussian prime, and therefore can be written as the sum of two squares. (7) Under what conditions can we find such an m? Well, we know that m^2 divided by p must give a remainder of (p-1), so we can answer this question by asking “What remainders can a square number give when divided by p?” (8) Let’s assume we have some whole number r<p such that m^2/p never gives remainder r. For every number s<p, there must be some other number t<p such that st gives remainder r when divided by p. This follows from the fact that p is prime and the pigeonhole principle, since there are (p-1) whole numbers less than p to multiply s by, and (p-1) possible remainders, and if there were some t1 and t2 such that st1 had the same remainder as st2, then if we considered st1-st2, the remainders would cancel and we’d be left with a multiple of p, even though neither s nor t1-t2 is a multiple of p. Furthermore, t=/=s, since we know s^2 does not give a remainder of r. (9)By Wilson’s theorem (which was proved on numberphile) (p-1)!+1 is divisible by p. But by (8), we can pair up the factors of (p-1)! Into (p-1)/2 pairs such that the product of each pair has remainder r. So r^((p-1)/2) gives the same remainder as (p-1)! when divided by p, that is, a remainder of p-1. (10) We now consider p=4n+1 and r=p-1. In this case, r^((p-1)/2)= (p-1)^2n=((p-1)^2)^n. Since (p-1)^2=p^2-2p+1, the whole expression will give a remainder of 1 when divided by p. (11) But by (9), if there were no m such that m^2 gave remainder p-1 when divided by p, the remainder of the whole expression in (10) would be p-1. So we conclude that there is such an m. But by (6), this means p is a sum of two squares. QED.
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  8507. Now the proof that we really do get unique factorization in the Gaussian integers. It’s easiest to see the logic side-by-side with the logic that shows we get unique factorization in the integers. (1): First, we show that there is a concept of “division with remainder” in the Gaussian integers. That is, for any two Gaussian integers z=a+bi and w=c+di, we have two more Gaussian integers q (the “quotient”) and r (the “remainder.) such that z=wq+r and such that the |r|<|w|. (2): To show that this is true for the integers is easy. For two integers a and b, we can say q=a/b rounded to the nearest integer, and r=a-qb. Dividing both sides by b gives r/b=a/b-q. It’s easy to see that |r|<|b| if and only if |r/b|<1. And what is r/b? The distance from a/b to the nearest integer. But on the number line, the furthest you can be from an integer is ½. So r/b is certainly less than 1. (3) Now we carry out a similar proof for the Gaussian integers. z/w is a point on the complex plane, so we can declare q to be the nearest (in terms of absolute value) Gaussian integer to z/w, and say r=z-wq. To show |r|<|w|, we need only show |r/w|<1. But |r/w| is just the distance from z/w to the nearest Gaussian integer. Since the Gaussian integers form the corners of a grid of 1-by-1 squares on the complex plane, and the furthest a point inside a 1-by-1 square can be from a corner is sqrt(2)/2<1, we can surely say |r/w|<1. (4) We can now use the Euclidean algorithm,which is described on wikipedia, to find the least common divisor of w and z. Since this algorithm constructs the least common divisor through a series of steps which each involve multiplying the inputs w and z, as well as the outputs of the previous steps, by (Gaussian) integers and adding them together. If follows that the least common divisor of w and z can be expressed in the form LCD(w,z)=jz+kw, for (Gaussian) integers j and k. (5) Using this fact, we can prove the following: if a (Gaussian) prime p divides a product of (Gaussian) integers a*b, it must divide either a or b. (6) Assume p divides a*b, that is, ab=pq for some q, but p does not divide a. Since p is prime, this means LCD(p,a)=1. It follows that 1 can be expressed by 1=jp+ka for some Gaussian integers j and k. Multiplying both sides by b, we get b=jpb+kab=jpb+kpq=p(jb+kq). So p must divide b. (7) Now let’s take c to be an arbitrary Gaussian integer. If it cannot be written as the product of two Gaussian integers of strictly smaller absolute value, then by definition it is a Gaussian prime. If it can, say, c=ab, then either one or both of them are Gaussian primes, or we can break down one or both of them further until we have expressed c as a product of Gaussian primes. (8)But we can use (6) to show that we could not get a factorization that ends up having different primes. So factorization in the (Gaussian) integers is unique
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  8533. So I take it (adding a few bits about fractals that I know) that when using rectangular corner-cutting to approximate a circle, you approximate the area of the circle, but the perimeter of your approximation is a fractal curve that has infinite right-angled discontinuities which are not present in the smooth circular curve. Fractal curves have "fractal dimension" of at least 1 - they can e.g. be area-filling curves that have an area rather than a length, or space-filling curves that have a volume. Fractal surfaces have fractal dimension of at least 2 and can be space-filling surfaces. Either way (and including all the cases with non-integer dimension), arguments about measures being preserved/increased/whatever as the approximation is improved break down when the measure (length or area) ceases to apply, so you can't then take those measures from fractal approximations and apply them to the non-fractal thing being approximated. On the other hand when subdivision forms smaller and smaller in-between angles, in the limit you have infinitely many zero degree angles - the discontinuities have disappeared so that the infinite pieces (lines/triangles/whatever) form a smooth, continuous curve/surface. There's a different non-convergence problem (Runge's phenomenon) which I find interesting when approximating smooth curves using high-order polynomial curves, or when approximating smooth surfaces using high-order polynomial surfaces. The normal solution is using piecewise curves/surfaces using low degree polynomials for each piece, though usually based on a single specification for the full curve (e.g. B-spline) rather than explicitly working out the polynomials for each piece. Converting into a connected sequence of simple polynomial curves (e.g. Bezier curves) is easy enough but unnecessary. Subdividing into linear B-splines into lines is the linear-polynomial-pieces special case that (like linear B-splines themselves) no-one uses. I mention this because I'm now wondering if the Runge's phenomenon convergence failure indicates another kind of fractal, with infinite extreme "oscillations" rather than infinite discontinuities.
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  8709. It seems to me that the intention of the Talmud is that smaller creditors. who usually are poorer people, get a bigger share up to a certain point. After that point it would make sense that all parties get a proportional share. That would mean that the columns in the upper half all have the same height, but widths proportional to the amount owed. The split that you suggest would mean that smaller creditors are disadvantaged if more than 50% of the owed money has to be split. If for example 75 Dollars are missing, the smallest creditor in your example would lose 25%, while the biggest creditor would only lose 8.33%. I have some issues with the contested garment rule. Firstly it rewards claiming as much as possible, because claiming more means that you will get more. Secondly it does not always make sense so simply split the contested parts into equal parts. You could construct a situation that makes it much more likely for example that one brother was the father and not the other. The fairness of a split rule also very much depends on what share of the owed money usually is available. Does it really happen in half of all cases that the debtor can only pay back half or less of what he owes? If most debtors for example cab pay 80% or more, the system favours the big creditors. I also need to mention that it is very unfair that taxes always have to be paid before a split between creditors. That practically means that the creditors have to pay taxes on money someone else owns them. In many cases no money at all might be left for creditors once taxes were paid.
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  9092. Here's my (relatively non-rigorous) go at proving that log-exponent property beyond the positive integers. Log-exponent property for rationals: ---------------------------------------------------------- For any positive integer q, (1/q)A(x) added to itself q times is (q/q)A(x) = A(x). Likewise, A(x^(1/q) * x^(1/q) * x^(1/q) * x^(1/q) ... ), where we multiply q times before applying A, is the same as A(x^(q/q)) = A(x). Therefore, (1/q)A(x) = A(x^(1/q)) for all positive integers q. It's already known from the video that for any positive integer p, p*A(x) = A(x^p). Combining with our above proposition, we can conclude (p/q)A(x) = A(x^(p/q)) for any positive integers p and q, and thus this log-exponent property holds for the positive rationals. For (positive) real numbers: ---------------------------------------------------------- By definition, any real number can be written as an infinite convergent sum of some arbitrary sequence of rational numbers (for our real number in question, r, let's call it q1, q2, q3...). We know that our log-exponent property holds for all the rationals, and so q_i * A(x) = A(x^q_i) at all indices i >= 1. Consider A(x) * r = A(x) * lim(sum(q)). The log-exponent property holds at every finitely indexed step of this summation, so as our number of steps approaches infinity, the whole expression's limit must inevitably approach A(x^sum(q)) = A(x^r), i.e. A(x) * r = A(x^r) for any positive real number. Probably not 100% adequate but I think it makes sense?
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  9293. 36:01 I thought about this one for a long time… And I came to a similar “sparseness” conclusion, though I wasn’t able to definitively prove that it converges One thing I came up with is that for large N, the expected distance between the integers used for this series should be N^0.0458, which is somewhere between the 21st and 22nd root of N (To be more precise, the exponent is exactly Log_10(10/9) = 0.04575749… Where the inverse of 0.9 shows up here, precisely because we are removing another 10% of the integers every time we approach a new power of 10 The way I’ve worded that might make it sound like I’m over counting by removing things that would already be removed… But it’s easier to think of it in terms of a weighted average of what has already happened. For instance, every 10 integers before 90 keeps exactly 9 integers, which is 90%. But then the 90s keep 0%, so we have 0.9(90%) + 0.1(0%) = 81% of all integers kept up to 100 Speaking of which… This whole pattern of removals reminds me very strongly of “negative space” fractals such as the Sierpinski Triangle, or the Cantor Set. I bet the fact that this series forms a fractal ultimately proves to be a huge factor in the reason why it converges, despite the fact that the “generation 0” series diverges Edit: oh, you actually drew a representation of said fractal! That’s awesome. Thanks Tristan ❤) My inspiration for this idea came from the prime number theorem, where we know the expected distance between primes is about log(N). As you mentioned earlier, the inverse prime series actually diverges, so I knew the integers for this Kempner series needed to be more sparse than the primes (if we want it to converge) And of course, that turns out to be true! N^a grows faster than log(N) for all a > 0, even if it leads to something “very slow” like the 22nd root of N 😅 But unfortunately, I haven’t been able to see how I would prove that it actually converges. (I even went back and reviewed all the series convergence tests that I might have forgotten about, but nothing came to mind…) I guess I’ll see how it works at the end of the video 🙂 Edit: Man, I totally could have come up with that proof! Kinda disappointed I didn’t figure it out, but oh well… That’s what I get for trying to do most of this in my head at the computer, without writing much down lol
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  9337. I was thinking more like "in any situation when from an eyelet there is more than one step the lace takes to reach another eyelet, you can rearrange the lacing in a way to put the lace just one or zero steps apart from the original eyelet. That closest eyelet now has three lace parts, rearrange one of them to be to that second eyelet we just took the lace from. Now the local lacing is the shortest for that eyelet. Take a random lacing. Let's rearrange the lacing to make it locally the shortest across the whole lacing. Let's start at the bottom, rearrange the lacing to make it so two bottom ones are connected, every other change happens above the part we have already, because there is no below, making it impossible to screw up the optimized part. Now rearrange the lacing to make to make it connect just one step above the lowest row, it naturally creates the cross lacing. Second row, if we try to connect them with step 0, we cannot connect all the other eyelets, thus another rearrangement to create cross lacing occurs naturally, and since no eyelet underneath is screwed up, the change only happens with the eyelets above, this will be true to every step. Thus no matter the amount of steps the cross lacing will naturally occur to locally optimize every eyelet. And since there is no way to create any line that isn't 1 or 0 step lines, but being shorter than 1 or 0 step lines, at all and specifically by creating longer lines elsewhere, which comes from the fact that eyelet columns are at an exact distance from each other (which doesn't necessarily mean that the solution would not be cross lacing for the inconsistent distance, but it means we don't have to think about those cases), if every eyelet is optimized, the whole system is optimized. The only way we can try optimizing the system to trouble individual eyelets, is to create more 0 step connections, which geometrically can be proven to only make the total length worse" Or something like that
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  9371. My background is that i took calculus up to multivariable/vector calc and i took a class on ODEs, and I tried to take linear algebra but failed it. I was able to understand every part that you expected me to understand with only a couple pauses. Anything that you intentionally glossed over I probably didn't understand that well. Also I commented a long time ago I asked for a video about bernoulli numbers and you finally delivered haha 😊. It was very satisfying, basically everything I wanted to know. I actually knew about the "bernoulli numbers being the matrix inverse of the pascal numbers" thing from some other video I watched (dont remember where). Anyway I really liked this video and all these longer ones. Your presentation style is inspiring especially for someone that loves pattern spotting and tends to think very algebraically. Definitely my favorite math channel if nothing else just for the great topics you choose to cover! Thanks for that and I can't wait for the followup! ❤️ Also back in May I started messing with zeta(3) stuff. I accidentally rediscovered a constant which I found on OEIS that has to do with the eta function, and some of the stuff I was doing involved gamma(1/3). My intuition tells me a closed form for zeta(3n) would not include pi, but probably some other constant, maybe even one that isn't very well studied. I also discovered a family of things which I call partite functions, and I started a secondary math youtube channel to start documenting some of it. I hope to work on that more this year and next year but I havent had much free time. I think my passion for math this year was mostly from watching videos on your channel. Thanks for all the inspiration~
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  9403. As soon as you pointed out that the number of vertices, edges, faces, etc. of an n-cube sum to 3^n, I had a total "aha moment", where I thought, "of course they do, just as a Rubik's cube has 1 mini-cube for each vertex, edge, face, and (hypothetically) an interior mini-cube for the 1 cell to make 27". And then I paused the video and worked out a visual proof sketch (of the (x+2)^n coefficients counting the elements of an n-cube). I haven't kept records, but maybe once in 4 videos or so, something early will give me an "aha, I see where he's going" moment and that's always fun. And usually my aha moment pans out later in the video. But this time you never went in my direction, so I'll present my proof concept (EDIT: Well, Tristan's proof is the same concept, but it treats the vertices and edges directly as algebraic objects instead of using n-volumes like my concept below. I thought my idea was missed because of the Euler tangent.) If you have a 1+x+1 line segment partitioned into segments of length 1, x, and 1, you can raise it the nth power and get an n-cube with n-volume (1+x+1)^n that is partitioned into 3^n n-cuboids. Each vertex is adjacent to exactly one n-cuboid with n-volume 1^n*x^0=1. Each edge is adjacent to two vertex-cuboids, but also exactly one n-cuboid with n-volume 1^(n-1)*x^1=x. Each face is adjacent to vertex and edge n-cuboids, but also exactly one additional n-cuboid with n-volume x^2. And so forth. (And finally there is one with n-volume x^n in the center.) It is clearer to start by illustrating for n=1,2,3: https://imgur.com/a/VIajEwu (1+x+1)^2 creates a square with 9 pieces, 4 of area 1 at each vertex, 4 of area x along each edge, and 1 of area x^2 in the center. (1+x+1)^3 creates a cube with 27 pieces, 8 of volume 1 at each vertex, 12 of volume x along each edge, 6 of volume x^2 in the middle of each face, and 1 of volume x^3 in the center. Now, I'm not an expert at turning visual proof sketches into proofs, but I think it's very pretty.
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  9460. 9:23 i hate this "paradox" and this is NOT a full rotation!!! From the rotating coin's perspective, it is currently upside down!!! Consider if you were a ball the size of earth, and you rolled around the equator of earth from 0 degrees to 0 degrees. You are inside the ball, and you start with your feet pointing at the ground, at 0 degrees on the equator. You start rolling around, and when you reach 90 degrees, your HEAD IS POINTING TO THE GROUND! You would never call this the "first rotation"!!!!!!!!!! Only when you reach 0 degrees on the equator again would you return to your starting position of feet down, making your SINGLE FULL ROTATION. The coin is exactly the same! From the coins frame of reference, it only makes one rotation! It is only when you place both coins in a different frame of reference and observe them arbitrarily from the side than it appears to be two rotations. Really what you are asking with the coin "paradox" is if you rotate a coin about a point that is 2 times its radius away from its center such that the rate of rotation of the coin about its own center is twice that of the rotation rate about the point 2 times the radius, how many times will the coin rotate about its center per each rotation about the further point? This is obviously a stupid and trivial question because you are literally asking "if a coin rotates twice around its center for each time it rotates around an arbitrary point, how many times does the coin rotate for each time it rotates about its arbitrary point?" This is exactly the same as saying "if 2x = y, then what is y?" In math we often toss out the trivial solution, or at least set it aside, but it often TELLS US NOTHING. The coin paradox is a case of this. The "it rotates twice" answer is not only wrong, its the trivial solution to an even more trivial question.
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  9563. 27:00 “Aumann and Maschler explain the Talmudic approach this way: they suggest that half of the total claim, representing half a container, serves as a psychological threshold between two perspectives. If a creditor receives less than half of their claim, they focus on the loss—seeing the situation as a complete loss with only a small portion salvaged. If a creditor receives more than half, they focus on what they recovered, perceiving it as a full repayment with a minor shortfall.” It’s almost the reverse of counterfactual thinking in Olympic medal winners. The bronze medal winners are, supposedly, happier than the silver medal winners. If you win the bronze medal, you engage in downward counterfactual thinking, looking at all the competitors who won nothing at all, i.e., focusing on your win; if you get the silver, so the theory goes, you engage in upward counterfactual thinking, i.e., looking up at the gold medalist and thinking “That could have been me!” focusing on the loss. The algorithm given by Presh Talwalkar in his 2008 blog post, “How Game Theory Solved a Religious Mystery,” (which is how I first learned of this distribution problem and its Talmudic solution), makes the logic clear: (1) Order the creditors from lowest to highest claims. (2) Divide the estate equally among all parties until the lowest creditor receives one half of the claim. (3) Divide the estate equally among all parties except the lowest creditor until the next lowest creditor receives one half of the claim. (4) Proceed until each creditor has reached one-half of the original claim. (5) Now, work in reverse. Start giving the highest-claim money from the estate until the loss, the difference between the claim and the award, equals the loss for the next highest creditor. (6) Then divide the estate equally among the highest creditors until the loss of the highest creditors equals the loss of the next highest. (7) Continue until all money has been awarded. That algorithm ensures that, to the extent possible, each creditor, from lowest to highest, gets at least half of the claim, and only after that is satisfied, the losses are equalized in absolute terms among the remaining creditors.
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  9617. Many many years ago I read in a book by Ian Stewart ("Another Fine Math You've Got Me Into. . ") about the well known puzzle of crossing the river with a goat, a lion and a cabbage. If I remember correctly - or pause to think - this is isomorphic to Hanoi with three discs. Ian Stewart discusses Hanoi in that chapter and quotes Dr Andreas Hinz's wonderful article about the average path length of 3-peg n-disc Hanoi. I could not resist the temptation to try to prove the sqrt(17) infested formula and thought I discovered a mistake. I seem to remember there was actually a printing error in Stewart's book. Anyway, I spent many an evening with our 9-year old daughter on the balcony of our rented Swiss holiday chalet, enjoying the balmy evening weather and doing maths with a little girl, trying things out, sketching out attempts, thinking out loud, in short, something like real research mathematics. I wrote out my results and sent it to Dr Hinz who kindly sent me a reprint of his article with a friendly letter discussing my "paper" and gently pointing out one error of reasoning, in the form of a question, in the best Socratic fashion. I will never forget the joy of doing real maths - never mind the fatal error. I learned so much. Best of all was the wonderful interaction with Dr Hinz and his generosity. I cannot help but feeling sorry for anyone who has not had the experience of immersing oneself in the beautiful world of mathematical ideas. In my Covid-induced isolation I spend one hour each week with a high school student who wants to study mathematics. My aim is to cure her from high school maths and, after a fashion, show what maths is really about. After introducing her to the rationals and the notion of countable infinity, I showed her Cantor's diagonal proof of the uncountability of the reals. She exclaimed "But there are no holes between those fractions! Where do all those decimal numbers go????" Next, I will have to introduce her to Dedekind cuts and similar ideas. If I can convince her that the real line is very mysterious - and she needs at this stage little convincing - I believe she will be hooked on maths forever. Like me. High school teachers who never showed the young minds in their class something like Euclid's proof of the infinity of the primes, should be lined up against the wall and shot 😎. How many people end up mathematophobes without ever having seen real maths? ​ @Mathologer , you are one of my heroes - with Ian Stewart, 1B3B and the other soldiers fighting the good fight.
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  9732. 31:48 "What does this formula say if you plug in a negative number?" If I take the recurrence relation F(n) = F(n-1) + F(n-2), run it thru a change of variables n -> n+2, and rearrange terms to re-isolate F(n) on the left, I get F(n) = F(n+2) - F(n+1). Together with the base cases F(0) = 0, F(1) = 1, in this way I can iterate the sequence in the other direction. That is, F(-1) = F(1) - F(0) = 1, F(-2) = F(0) - F(-1) = -1, F(-3) = F(-1) - F(-2) = 2, F(-4) = -3, F(-5) = 5, and so on; where in general, F(-n) = (-1)ⁿ⁺¹ F(n). Substituting a negative integer for n in Binet's formula gives me the same result as iterating manually in this way. 31:53 "...or a number that's not an integer, like π, or φ (hehe)?" Whoa, hold on there cowboy! Before I go trying to plug in craaazy stuff like F(π) or F(φ), I'm gonna first try plugging in an "easy" non-integer. Like maybe n = 1/2. I'll try F(1/2) at first; then maybe from that, I'll learn what I need to know to plug in F(π) or F(φ). I'm gonna use the form of Binet's formula you alluded to at 32:11, by noting that -1/φ = 1-φ & plugging that in to simplify the denominator to √5. I'm also gonna change notation by n -> x, just because n is often an integer by convention & I wanna remember that now we're generalizing to real arguments of F. That gives me this formula: F(x) = [φˣ - (1-φ)ˣ] / √5. Plugging in x = 1/2, and noting that x^(1/2) = √x, I get F(1/2) = [√φ - √(1-φ)] / √5. Wait a sec... 1-φ ≅ -0.618 < 0... now you got me taking the square roots of negative numbers!! If I take the principal square root √(-1) = i and factor it out from the √(1-φ), I can rearrange to F(1/2) = [√φ / √5] - [√(φ-1) / √5] i = √(1+√5)/√10 - √(√5-1)/√10 i ≅ 0.569 + 0.352i. Backing up a bit now, what if instead of factoring out a √(-1) from the substituted formula, I factor out a (-1)ⁿ from the original formula, i.e. F(x) = φˣ/√5 - (-1)ˣ (φ-1)ˣ / √5? Now I can handle all the "complex" stuff in that (-1)ˣ bit, as everything else is real-valued. If x = 0, I have (-1)ˣ = 1; when x = 1/2, I had (-1)ˣ = i; and when x = 1, of course (-1)ˣ = -1. This is like a unit vector rotating thru the complex unit circle... so to interpolate, I'm gonna use Euler's identity, e^(iπ) = -1. Then I get F(x) = φˣ/√5 - e^(iπx) (φ-1)ˣ / √5. If I wanna split this into its real & imaginary parts, I can use e^(ix) = cos(x) + i sin(x) ==> Re[F(x)] = [φˣ - (φ-1)ˣ cos(πx)] / √5, and Im[F(x)] = -[(φ-1)ˣ sin(πx)] / √5. So to answer your question for x = π: Re[F(π)] = [φ^π - (φ-1)^π cos(π²)] / √5 ≅ 2.117, and Im[F(π)] = -[(φ-1)^π sin(π²)] / √5 ≅ 0.042. Thus F(π) ≅ 2.117 + 0.042i. And for x = φ: Re[F(φ)] = [φ^φ - (φ-1)^φ cos(πφ)] / √5 ≅ 0.900, and Im[F(φ)] = -[(φ-1)^φ sin(πφ)] / √5 ≅ 0.191. Thus F(φ) ≅ 0.900 + 0.191i. In addition to F(π) ≅ 2.117 + 0.042i, I also get F(π+1) ≅ 3.226 - 0.026i, and F(π+2) ≅ 5.343 + 0.016i. If I add F(π) + F(π+1), that gives me (2.117 + 3.226) + (0.042 - 0.026)i = 5.343 + 0.016i = F(π+2). Would you look at that -- the original Fibonacci recurrence relation continues to hold! :)
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  10005. Dear Mathologer: First of all, thanks! What a beautiful & elegant tour de force to end a crazy year! Now, I wish to tell you a little story, & I hope you can answer a question for me. This has been bugging me for 35 years! I can't seem to find anything in the literature about it. Here goes... In the early to mid 1980s, I was playing around with an idea, & I developed a formula for it. I'm sure it's some standard thing, but it was neat for me to be able to find it. It's the formula for how many lines it takes to connect a given # of points - every one to every other one. 2 points takes 1 line; 3 points takes 3 lines; 4 points takes 6 lines, etc. The formula (of course) is: x= {n*(n-1)}/2, where n is the # of points, and x is the # of lines. Now, I wouldn't be asking you anything if that were the end of the story! Almost 20 years to the day later, I was playing an old video game called Qbert. You can easily look it up online & find out what it was like, but here's a quick description. The playing field is a triangular grid of solid 3D blocks, as though they're stacked up higher like bleachers, but toward a middle point (apex). I wondered if I could find a formula that would tell me how many blocks would occupy the face, based on the number of blocks along one side (all 3 sides being equal, of course). I found it, & to my utter astonishment, it's this: x={n*(n+1}/2), where n is the # of blocks along any one side, and x is the number of total blocks on the face. How can this be? I've never been able to explain how these are related! How can they be identical except for a +/- sign?!? I hope you can help me kick off the new year by finally solving this weird conundrum! Thanks again. tavi.
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  10042. I wish I had a teacher like you when I was younger… My brain refuses to understand maths of any kind beyond 1+1=2 😄 But I’m curious, so please bear with my stupidity. This is cute and I’m sure very interesting for many, but for me it’s a bit boring because it’s unidimensional (I guess it is two- dimensional as in length and height, but it is unidimensional, really). You cannot squish and stretch in 2 dimensions (you see? I have the mind of a preschooler who plays with plasticine, so the thingie would expand towards me and on the opposite side, creating the volume, as in tri-dimensionality). Is there such a thing as multi- dimensional maths? To use your prop as an example, I imagine a cube made up of many identical cubes, each having its properties and functions. I imagine each little cube having a specific colour. The cubes interact with each other, so the colours would blend (would they necessarily? If yes, how?). How does the individual velocity of one or more of them spinning, or the spinning of the whole assembly, affect them and the whole (do they change shape or colour?). Do they remain cubes and if not, why not? If they turn into something else, does the big cube remain a cube? Can a cube be made of smaller non- cubical items? If the big cube insisted on remaining a cube (could it?), what would be the space left amongst the other non- cubical sub- structures? What if we don’t have a name for that space? Would that space have any colours, physical properties and mathematical functions? If yes, are those determined/ assigned by the other non- cubical sub- structures and/ or the big cube that still lingers in your mind because I mentioned it as a possibility? I am probably not just stupid, but also crazy 🤪, but it’s fun to do thought experiments even though I don’t have the mental maths apparatus to describe and analyse it; it’s a very rewarding aesthetic experience. More seriously now, is there anything such as multi- dimensional maths? There must be because I heard of multi- dimensional chess. Why do you have algebra, trigonometry, geometry, and physics as distinct? Does one necessitates the other? If so, why? It’s a bit of a series of circular arguments. And, last but not least, how does all this knowledge help in the ‘real world’, anyway? PS. Do these cubes smell? In school I was as good (not) at chemistry as I was at maths 😄 but I remember something about molecules as in smell molecules. What shape is the smell of chocolate and why is it so delicious (especially if it’s hot chocolate with a few drops of rose oil)? Why is human nose of a shape different from a dog’s nose; it cannot be explained by the evolutionary theory. Why do snakes smell with their tongues? What is the function of smell? Why is the function of smell not a mathematical function? What are the disadvantages of defining people in terms of the function they (must) fulfil in society? Who says that the society is really a cube? Sorry, I am really not trying to pretend I’m smart, but I’m curious if anyone has thought about these things. Thanks. 😊
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  10098. 6:05 First challenge: Remove the horizontal and vertical neighbors of a corner square leaving it disconnected from the rest of the board (and remove any other two squares except for the disconnected corner). Since no domino tiling can cover this disconnected corner square, there is no domino tiling of this board. 10:18 Second challenge: The formula spits out 0 for odd m,n, because in this case the upper index boundaries j=⌈m/2⌉=(m+1)/2 and k=⌈n/2⌉=(n+1)/2 yield jπ/(m+1)=π/2 and kπ/(n+1)=π/2, so both cos terms in the sum vanish simultaneously in one factor of the long product. Hence, the entire product vanishes. 13:50 Third challenge: The number of tilings for the (2,n)-board is the n-th fibonacci number Fn starting with F1=1 and F2=2. Proof: If we number each square with its columns number (or row number, if you consider the vertical board) the resulting adjacency matrix An has i's on its main diagonal and 1's on the two neighboring diagonals. Using Laplace expansion we see that its determinant Dn:=det(An) satisfies D(n+2)=i·D(n+1)-Dn for all n≥1. It follows inductively that Dn=i^n·Fn. Hence, after removing signs and i's from Dn the number of tilings for the (2,n)-board is |Dn|=Fn. 14:34 Unnumbered challenge: To count the number of tilings for the pair of glasses, we can break it up into smaller, simply connected pieces (i.e. pieces without holes) on which we can apply the determinant-method. Firstly, denote by H(row,col) or V(row,col) a horizontal or vertical domino with its left/upper square at coordinate (row,col) with coordinates starting with (1,1) at the top/left-most square (like a matrix of squares). Now to the fun part. The square (1,8) can only be tiled in two different ways, either H(1,7) or V(1,8). Similarly, the square (4,8) can only be tiled with H(4,7) or V(3,8). Together those four possibilities give us four groups of valid tilings. Call those four groups HH,HV,VH,VV (first letter representing the choice for the upper square, second character representing the choice for the lower square). Notice that there are no tilings for HV and VH, because trying to extend HV or VH to a valid tiling will always leave one square untiled. Therefore, all tilings belong to HH and VV. The same holds for the squares (1,11) and (4,11). Call their corresponding groups HH' and VV'. In summary, the set of all valid tilings is a disjoint union of tilings HH∩HH', HH∩VV', VV∩HH', VV∩VV'. By the board's symmetry HH∩VV' and VV∩HH' contain the same number of tilings, so we only need to count the number of tilings in HH∩HH', HH∩VV' and VV∩VV'. To count the number of tilings in any of those groups, we only need to remove the squares under the dominos on the squares (1,8),(4,8),(1,11),(4,11), apply the determinant-method to all resulting connected components and multiply them together. Here are the results: HH∩HH' has 6*5*6=180 valid tilings, HH∩VV' has 6*3*9=162 valid tilings, and VV∩VV' has 9*2*9=162 valid tilings. Summing everything up (remembering to count HH∩VV' twice) we get 666 valid tilings for the pair of glasses. 36:42 QUESTION: To me (and I am surely not the only one to notice this) it looks like the hexagon tilings (interpreted as 3d stacks of cubes) build a sphere at the origin together with three coordinate planes. Are there any theorems/papers on this as well?
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  10127. I've used, well rarely now, a slide rule for 60 years. My dad taught me how to use one and how it worked when I was in 3rd or 4th grade. Upon seeing the answer to 13 times 13 my automatic reflexive action was to say "THAT'S WRONG!" However, upon closer inspection the 13 mark was on 169. So what hit me so hard as to evoke such a knee jerk reaction? I grabbed the last slide rule I ever bought for academic work (In 1968 when I was 15 years old) and stared at it intensely. The scale setup on it is identical to that shown @9:21. I think the P scale (Pythagorean) was its main attraction for me at the time. Now I understand what caught my instinctive eye. There is no where on any slide rule in my collection (I have more than 10 now), in any place, on any scale, that has an intermediate graduation (a short line between two long lines) that doesn't represent half as 0.5, i.e. having long line 168, short line 169, and long line 170 would NEVER be used in any 'real' slide rule. Yeah, it's half way, but it is not 5, 0.5, 0.05, etc.. The 'rule for the rule', without exception, seems to be that all graduations between graduations represent 0.5 (for 1 short graduation between 2 long ones), 1 (for 9 short* graduations between 2 annunciated marks), and 2 (for 4 short graduations between 2 long ones). *Here too 0.5 or the 5th mark is lengthened. Between annunciated marks the '5 position' is always longer, e.g. the mark between "6" & "7" or 6.5 is lengthened on the C & D scales. This was all just instinct until I analyzed it and wrote it down. Thank you! There's a secondary lesson that's also 'taught' by familiarity with the slide rule's layout. I find that virtually none of the engineers I've worked with over the years realize that a constant distance on a logarithmic plot represents a constant percentage or factor. This simple, easily understood concept, always seems to be a surprise. In recent years I've never heard someone say, "Yeah, I knew that."
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  10133. What a neat way to explain the basics of calculus. I like the usual mathologer music with it too - but not the noisy bit near the end :( Also a new word 'odometer' I thought it was called a mileometer or mileage counter. It must have changed its name for countries that use km. Who would want a 'kilometremeter'? I forget what the other new word was. Maybe it was 'run' in a new context, as in 'rise and run'. Not heard the x co-ordinate being called that before. It gets complicated when you get a function to integrate that doesn't have a simple 'elementary' solution. I like using a Mathematical handbook that has pages and pages of definite and indefinite integrals to look up. It also has infinite series for functions - that might help with integration too! Also very useful are its geometric formulae and diagrams. It's got lots more in that I don't use or don't remember - or at a level way beyond where we got to at university. I just remember we had some differential equations to solve - probably for equations of motion, pendulums, orbits, vibrations or waves. It got so complicated with del or div or curl - partial differential equations in 3D (or 4D including time). We could have done with a mathologer style animated explanation of the Del operator and the different kinds of derivatives it makles! It just kept getting more and more complicated with fluid dynamics and atmospheric physics! I can see why supercomputers are needed to solve them numerically for climatology and weather forecasting. PS I started to wonder how the odometer measures distance when you go at a constant speed in a circle because the wheels on one side are covering more distance than those on the other side, but I presume they still all rotate at the same rate. Part of the tyre must be sliding on the road surface and not gripping it as well.
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  10162. Really liked the visualisation of the no9. Simple and effective. I love it when things become less abstract and visible like this. Im not competing for the book. You can make other people much happier with that. And i really wanted to say something else. This was YT advised to me and i watched all of it. Paused a few times to process it. But, a German mathematician, speaking english is in itself, interesting. Then you would probably expect someone in a suit (why?) and you are not. You would expect someone less masculine (why?), but you seem pretty masculine. And then you have this laugh/giggle and that caught me most i think. I am wondering now how we get our laugh. Our natural laugh. When i was an adolescent i remember i was told at some point that i had this particular laugh. At that time i copied it from others i think. It had changed and wasnt my natural manner of laughing. Since then it changed back to natural and on several occasions i was mocked in some mild manner bc i had a somewhat similar giggle as you have. I didnt really understand why. Also, it didnt matter to me really. Then some 10 years ago in a House MD episode there was some chap that had an odd laugh like that (followed by a snore) and it became clear throug the dialogue and such that this was not appoved of. It wasnt considered masculine or even mature. That was the message. But it makes no sense. Why would a laugh say anything about a persons masculinity or even adulthood? I couldnt place it and it seemed silly to me. Like how women nowadays disapprove of white socks. Or if a man crosses his legs or something. To me it seems a natural reaction to if you are hot or cold. Not to if you are a man. So seeing you now with this same giggle i have, i must say; Sir, i approve of your giggle! It is real, it is honest and i love it ;] (ok, has nothing to do with mathematics, or maybe it does, but i wouldnt know how). As you can see, i am less into math and more into psych. I will now be pondering for a week why we laugh like we do. I will also make sure to write 'Euler' correct in the future. I had quite some of your questions right! But i realise there was a 50% chance in most cases to get it right, without overhang. So it was more luck than wisdom, i guess ;]
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  10243. The human brain is pretty much incapable of visualizing 4 dimensional space and objects. Trying to visualize even a simple 4D cube is pretty much impossible. However, I once realized a method by which visualizing, or at least understanding it, becomes slightly easier. The method is like this: Let's start with the "one-dimensional unit cube", ie. a line segment of length 1. (This method works even if starting with the "zero-dimensional cube", ie. a point, but let's start easier with the one-dimensional cube.) Now, consider this 1-dimensional cube to be on the X axis. In order to get from here to a 2-dimensional unit cube (ie. a unit square), duplicate the 1-dimensional cube and translate it by 1 unit in the second dimension, ie. the Y axis. While doing this, keep the corresponding endpoints connected with straight lines. When you do this, you get a 2-dimensional unit cube. In order to get from the 2-dimensional unit cube to the 3-dimensional one, we do the same trick: We duplicate the 2-dimensional cube and translate it 1 unit in the third dimension (ie. the Z axis), while keeping the corresponding corner points connected with straight lines. This way we get a 3-dimensional unit cube. Obviously, the same trick works to get a 4-dimensional cube. And it is precisely this trick that helps one understand it a bit better: Take the 3-dimensional unit cube, duplicate it, and translate it by one unit in the fourth dimension, while keeping the corresponding corner points connected with straight lines. You get a 4-dimensional unit cube. You don't need to precisely visualize this operation. Just think of it as moving the copy of the 3-dimensional cube in a direction that's not any of the three dimensions. This trick helps you, among other things, deduce the number of corners, vertices, faces and 3D cubes in the 4D cube, and helps you understand where the multiple 3D cubes come from.
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  10310. My python imlementation for working out the number of ways to make change: *this works in cents coins = [1,5,10,25,50,100] maximum = 1000 ways = [] for i in range(0,len(coins)): for x in range(0,maximum): way = 0 if(x + 1 == coins[i]): # We can +1 if our index is our coin denomination. Only happens 1 time so probably better to not repeat this. way += 1 if(0 <= x - coins[i] < len(ways)): # Now see if we can make the remaining coins with lower denominations of coins. way += ways[x-coins[i]] if(i > 0): # Ways already populated ways[x] += way else: ways.append(way) print(ways[-1]) For reference: # 1 / 1 # 1 1, 2 / 2 # 1 1 1, 2 1 / 2 # 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1, 2 2 / 3 # 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1, 2 2 1 / 3 # 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1, 2 2 1 1, 2 2 2 / 4 # 1 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1 1, 2 2 1 1 1, 2 2 2 1 / 4 # 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1 1 1 1, 2 2 1 1 1 1, 2 2 2 1 1, 2 2 2 2 2 / 5 # 1 / 1 [1,0,0] # 1 1, 2 / 2 [1,1,0] # 1 1 1, 2 1, 3 / 3 [1,1,1] # 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1, 2 2, 3 1 / 4 [1,2,1] # 1 1 1 1 1, 2 1 1 1, 2 2 1, 3 1 1, 3 2 / 5 [1,2,2] I looked at the patterns with these small cases with coins = [1,2] and coins = [1,2,3] respectively and remembered a similar problem to do with counting number of ways to climb steps if you can make 1 or 2 steps at a time and using dynamic programming. I realised I could introduce the coins in ascending order and then use previous answers to see if we can make the remainder when introducing a new coin. P.s. im tired so I haven't written my explanation up very well but hopefully someone can understand the code :) Runtime: O(n) if number of coins is constant. I haven't really looked for more efficient ways as this was what popped to mind first.
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  10393. i have come around to the idea that the use of " + ... " is too ambiguous. Recursion seems to be the only situation where you can avoid doing anything suspect. You can't just say "+ ... " and chop the tail off; because when you say A=B, they need the same information to be equal. Without specifying a recursive tail, the two sides might not have the exact same information. But it's really clear when the tail is there. S = -1 -S = 1 = (1-2)S = S - 2S = 1 S = 1 + 2S = -1 = 1 + 2(-1) -1 = 1 + 2(1 + 2(-1)) -1 = 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ... + 2^n + 2^{n+1}(-1) // it's obvious why S=-1, and there's no use of infinity // it's just that recursion expands to patterns. S = (1 + 2 + 4 + 8 + ... + 2^n) + 2^{n+1}S S = Sum(S) + Tail(S) S - Tail(S) = Sum(S) = Sum(S) = S - 2^{n+1}S = (-1)(1 - 2^{n+1}) = 2^{n+1}-1 ie: 1 + 2 = 3 1 + 2 + 4 = 7 1 + 2 + 4 + 8 = 15 ... ie: using recursion, we solved for the closed form for the sum of n terms. The S=-1 doesn't mean anything like what people assume it means. The S=-1 was crucial to correctly caclulating the sum. It makes sense, because when Sum(S) is large, Tail(S) must be large and negative to cancel it out. You have a convergent series when Tail(S) goes to zero as n gets large. ie: (S = 1 + (1/2)S). You can reproduce this with -(1/12) = T = 1 + 13T = 13^0 + 13^1 + 13^2 + ... + 13^n + 13^{n+1}T I'm pretty sure that there's a way to implement these series in code, where the paradoxes clear up. " + ... " doesn't really seem to have enough information to do clear and machine-checkable calculations.
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  10745. 13:20 I got up to 2*10^7 cents in ~10 minutes with a special implementation of the polynomial products, abusing their simple patterns with a divide and conquer strategy (anyone let me know if you want a detailed explanation of the optimizations I used and/or my code with inline comments), using a pretty modest computer setup (Intel Atom CPU N2600 1.60GHz without any use of parallel computing with the GPU as far as I know). Probably the next number in the sequence will take over an hour. However I don't have even enough RAM memory to do it because a vector of 2*10^8 of 128 bit integers (2^128~3.4*10^38 max number before overflow) takes ~3GB of space and using the disk memory will make everything slower. Here's the sequence (2*10^n dollars): 2728 53995291 4371565890901 427707562988709001 42677067562698867090001 4266770667562669886670900001 There seems to be emerging a pattern right there. (^.^) Here's my c++ noodle code (it uses a boost non-standard library for the int128_t "large integer" type) for any amount of cents: #include <iostream> #include <boost/multiprecision/cpp_int.hpp> using namespace std; using namespace boost::multiprecision; void add(vector<int128_t>&p,int s){ vector<int128_t>aux(p.size()-s); for(size_t i=0;i<aux.size();i++)aux[i]=p[i]; for(size_t i=0;i<aux.size();i++)p[i+s]+=aux[i]; } void shiftAdd(vector<int128_t>&p,int f,int s){ if(f==1)return; div_t d=div(f,2); if(d.rem){ vector<int128_t>aux(p.size()-(f-1)*s); for(size_t i=0;i<aux.size();i++)aux[i]=p[i]; shiftAdd(p,d.quot,s); add(p,d.quot*s); for(size_t i=0;i<aux.size();i++)p[i+(f-1)*s]+=aux[i]; }else{ shiftAdd(p,d.quot,s); add(p,d.quot*s); } } void shiftAdd(vector<int128_t>&p,int s){ div_t d=div(p.size(),s); if(d.rem)shiftAdd(p,d.quot+1,s); else shiftAdd(p,d.quot,s); } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { size_t n; while(cin>>n){ vector<int128_t>p(n/5+1,1); shiftAdd(p,1); shiftAdd(p,2); shiftAdd(p,5); shiftAdd(p,10); shiftAdd(p,20); cout<<p[n/5]<<endl; } return 0; } (^.^)
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  10779. Huh, so it seems to me the "ear erecting" procedure must obey two symmetries: the proper angle magnitudes corresponding to whichever polygon is chosen, and the chosen parity when deciding how to draw the ears. To attain the symmetry of a perfect polygon, all parities must somehow cancel each other out—after all, rotational symmetry doesn't care which direction a polygon is turned, since angles are conserved and any symmetries will appear regardless. Therefore, I think it makes more sense to think of the "degenerate" pentagons as 0D pentagons, which lack parity because it's meaningless to assign a direction to a single point. While I'm no mathematician, I suspect this what allows the special point work in this model. The "center of mass" exudes its magnitude, represented by the graph of the "degenerate/0D" pentagon, equally on all vertices of the perfect pentagon, but this is a matter of translational symmetry of the Cartesian plane; directionality is not a factor. As such, assigning any sort of parity to the "degenerate" pentagon makes no sense, and the only type of space in which forbidding parity makes sense is 0D—hence a 0D pentagon, that is infinitesimally small with overlapping vertices by inevitably because it exists in zero dimensional space. This could all be complete nonsense, but I'm still curious of what happens if you expanded Petr's miracle to include higher dimensions. For instance, could you get rid of the "degenerate" pentagon by drawing the pentagons on the surface of a Klein bottle, or some other 2D manifold in a 4D space, and using the additional dimension to draw two more pentagons with opposing parities to reproduce the same effect as the "degenerate" pentagon? I truly have no clue and would be delighted if anyone could provide some insight!
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  10872. Excelent presentation. I am an old engineer an I grew up learning the slide rule in chemistry I class. I whet college with a slide rule. During my junior year the hand held calculator and it made the slide rule obsolte, until your battery died. Rechargeable batteries were the weak point of the calculator. At my job I once had the opontunity to help out a minority school and I got to help in the only Algebra II class. It was logarithm day, The teacher was a bit lost in with this anchient math form and I offered some of my life experiances. I explained how logarithm were used in a practical engineering use like tables for of logs of sines and cosines for survey work and the slide rule. The hour was filed as was the black board. The following week I returned and the teacher explained how he continued the logarithm class the next day and how appriative he was. Logarithms are a lost art form that still surrounds us today and we are losing our history of how the world was built with logaritms. Logarithms have been replaced by a two dollar calculator. I love your rubberband explanation it was so visual. I never used the circular slide rule because I never knew how to find the decimal point. With the slide rule there is a method for setting the decimal point by counting the direction of the slide. Most engineering tests had multipule choice answers that varied by the decimal point. My Engineer in Training exam was a lot easier using two calculators that handled the decimal point. Why two calculators, 8 hour exam on a set of rechargable batties was iffy and no memory function.
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  11049. I did make it to the end. 50 min video is ok for me. Anything below 1 hour works. My background in math... Well, I have a masters in theoretical physics and participated in math olympiads when I was at school, so math was my first passion and I learned a fair bit of extra stuff. Sometimes I feel sad for not being able to share things I learned and it wouldn't make much sense anyway with the current state of technology - too slow... I can only share a tiny fraction of what I know, yet I know only a tiny fraction of what I want to know. Sometimes I feel sad when I forget something I once have known, and when that something isn't easily available for me to refresh. I go to wiki and can't find derivation of Webber functions, can't find methods for solving quasi periodic differential equations, can't find some non-linear mesoscopic physics topics. Hardly anyone makes a good video on quantum physics and general relativity, which are much better understood these days than some think. Quantum field theory and string theory sometimes seen as non-existent... Riemann zeta pops up in QFT all the time as well as those "divergent" sums. Renormalization groups topic didn't exist on the wiki when I needed it, at least it is there now... Some baby level math isn't always taught at school and gets missed at universities later. Like Ceva's theorem, continued fractions(and their connection to hypergeometric function and Pade approximants), game theory(for cases when the next move of each player is restricted by the move history), all kinds of coordinate systems(and useful tricks to solve physics problems, like orths derivatives), (least) quadratic non-residues.
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  11146. Description for infinity and process paradox definement: I). If there is one or more mathematical process is defined among limited elements, you ain't norm-ally have any result as a paradox and/or infinity sort. But, if at least one of those elements is not well and concretly defined, then you may receive conclusion at pardixial and/or infinity sort. For example: element c is the number (excluding zero) one of Reel leauge. Elemet z is equivalent to zero. The process is division and orders element z to divide c, means c/z=? C/0=infinite or defineless. Let's say element c=z then division process among them is 0/0=N/A defineless. Infinity-inf., inf./inf., inf-inf, inf.-c, etc are all defineless or infinity again. We have to make a total concrete definement among our elements, process and processing order rule. Our description mentioned above says/asserts: if there is one or more process among limited elements, and if the elements concretly and really defined, and processing syntax is definitly defined (exchange, disribution, replacement rules must be applied linearly not rondom, (somtime like that sine time like this during processing is forbidden!) Then you may not have any paradox or hardly any result as infinity nor N/A leauge. Infinity is not and cannot definable precisely and concretly, so that even if the elements limited under processing you may not have any other result except 0, infinity, N/A leauge or paradox. For Processing 0 with 0 or with infinity, it gives simillar results. C is element if reel leauge, infinity-c is equivalent to infinity. BUT if c is equivalent to zero, infinity-0 is not equivalent to infinity the result is N/A. Ahh why? How? It is because of 0 is not a well and concretly defined number, even as if it is not a really reel number 0 is simething like infinity it has double face like blade edges and binary quantal appearence in pricessings. In limit pricessing it has somethime -epsilon maner and simetimes +epsilon maner and breaking the pricessing synrax rule!!! We in mathematical pricessings to have a reel result and avoiding fall into infinity result trap, breaking processing rule. So, uncertainity defunement if zero, and zero's hermaphroditial +/- binary epsilonial janus-face nature causes the problem The definement for zero must be checked up and recorrection it needs. Our acceptances for zero are: If the process is +/- we may put 0 to left/right side of equivalency. This is correct you put -/+ a to the left and/or right. But not correct durectly puting zero to the wings, because 0=a-a and zero occurance after process aming reel numbere is nit equivalent to any zero absolute. I mean you may not put any absolute zero in your processes because the zero at the process +A-A=0 is not the zero absolutly exists in your assertation. Zero effectless at -/+ process among reel numbers leauge, Like this Zero is terminator (singular blackhole) at process multiply among R leauge 0/0 is N/A C/0=infinity 0/c=0 As you see here there is something sounds paradoxial already and there is definitly a great problem about definition of zero as a number!
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  11159. Years ago I stumbled on how to solve these after seeing someone show analogies between finite difference equations and differential equations: Let's say you're trying to solve the recursive definition for the sequence S(n): S(n) = S(n-1) + 5. Start with the homogeneous equation by only keeping terms involving S(n): S(n) = S(n-1). Clearly S(n) = C for some constant C; we'll call this H(n). Now guess that S(n) is the sum of H(n) and some other function of n based on the sum of the remaining terms, in this case 5. The trick is to always guess a polynomial one power above the inhomogeneous term, in this case a linear function: I(n) = A + B*n. By checking the recursive definition, S(n) = S(n-1) + 5 <==> C + A + B*n = C + A + B*n - B + 5 <==> B = 5. So if S(n) = C + A + 5*n, or by removing the redundant constant term, simply S(n) = C + 5*n, then the recursive relation is satisfied and the variable C is determined by setting the initial value of S(n), e.g. S(0) = 0. This approach works for summation as follows: If S(n) is the sum of the integers from 0 to n, then there is a recursive definition of S(n): S(n) = S(n-1) + n. Applying the same technique: S(n) = A + B*n + C*n^2 ==> A + B*n + C*n^2 = A + B*n - B + C*n^2 - 2*C*n - C + n ==> (1 - 2*C)*n - (B + C) = 0. Since this relation has to be true for all n, each coefficient in front of a power of n must be zero: 1 - 2*C = 0, and B + C = 0 ==> C = 1/2, B = -1/2. This means that S(n) = A - n/2 + n^2/2 = A + (n * (n - 1))/2, just like in the video but with an additional constant which can be set by setting some initial value of S(n). It's actually possible to continue this method in a general form for any sum of powers, which results in a convenient definition of coefficients which is again related to the definitions in this video. Just thought I'd share a parallel method for generating these sums.
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  11200. BONUS: Try it with other polygons! 3: Nothing interesting happens when you try it on an equilateral triangle, we don't have enough points to use ptolemy's. Unless we consider one point as a duplicate... L^2 + 0L = L^2 yeah there's nothing here, next polygon 4: Pythagoras shows up. 1^2 + 1^2 = [diag]^2, diag = sqrt(2). You still have golden rectangle magic but this time it's in this form: take a rectangle with aspect ratio 1 : sqrt(2) and cut it so the long edges are split in half, you'll now get two identical rectangles each with ratio 1 : sqrt(2). This is the basis for A4 paper. 6: Two kinds of diagonals, call them C for the short one and D for the long one. C^2 = 1 + D D^2 = 1 + C^2 = 2 + D CD = C + C Very quickly you can figure out what the exact values of D and C are. (Spoiler alert: D = 2 and C = sqrt(3)) If you draw out the diagonals here the symmetries do check out (if it wasn't obvious by the star of david and rule of thirds shenanigans going on) 8: We still have the same diagonal before. In order of length let's call the diagonals X, Y, and Z. X^2 = 1 + Y Y^2 = Y + X^2 = 1 + 2Y Z^2 = X^2 + X^2 = 2 + 2Y XY = X + Z XZ = 2Y YZ = 2X + Z (That last identity is redundant btw but it's useful to have around) What would a reverse X, Y, and Z maneuver look like? Trying to imagine, rescale, and rotate a 4d box is not the best idea for a 3d brain so let's reason through this algebraically. But I assume it involves the same "removing squares trick" (unless of course, something weird happens) X(AX+BY+CZ+D) = (B+D)X + (A+2C)Y + BZ + A Y(AX+BY+CZ+D) = (A+2C)X + (2B+D)Y + (A+C)Z + B Z(AX+BY+CZ+D) = 2BX + (2A+2C)Y + (B+D)Z + 2C There's a somewhat nice pattern here, the As only ever get added to the Cs, and the Bs only ever get added to the Ds 9: Call the diagonals in order of length from smallest to largest F, G, H. Can you tell I'm running out of letters? F^2 = G + 1 G^2 = G + H + 1 H^2 = F + G + H + 1 FG = F + H FH = G + H GH = F + G + H Notice that the 2s only ever seem to crop up when the number of sides is even. They're gone here. The magic bars? 1¦F¦G¦H F¦G+1¦F+H¦G+H G¦F+H¦G+H+1¦F+G+H H¦G+H¦F+G+H¦F+G+H+1 This feels like a weird magic multiplication table where a bunch of combined areas are all suddenly the same as each other For example, H^2 = F^2 + FG = F + G^2 = GH + 1 = FH + F + 1 Anything larger: We can use some logic for something: what happens when we repeatedly apply Ptolemy when one of the diagonals is the shortest one? Let's go in alphabetical order. A^2 = 1 + B AB = A + C AC = B + D AD = C + E The magic happens when we loop back around somewhere, but what if that never happened? Well then we get the natural numbers. A = 2, B = 3, C = 4, etc... The repeated identity is 2N = (N-1) + (N+1) But then Ptolemy under the reals is this (remember, Ptolemy applies to any circular quadrilateral, hence reals): Assuming A > B > C > D, (A-B)(C-D) + (A-D)(B-C) = (A-C)(B-D) You can multiply this out yourself to confirm this BONUS: What exactly are R and S, anyway? Two ways to go about this: one using trig and the other using polynomials TRIG: Let's solve for R first. The interior angles of a heptagon are 5pi/7, so the isosceles triangle formed by 2 edges and the R diagonal must have base angles of pi/7. R = 2cos(pi/7) We can use the formula R^2 = S + 1 to solve for S. S = 4cos^2(pi/7) - 1 The equivalent for phi is that it's 2cos(pi/5). POLYNOMIAL: The two solutions of phi came about from x^2 = x + 1. Can we do something similar here? RS = R + S RS - S = R S = R/(R - 1) R^2 = 1 + S = 1 + R/(R-1) R isn't 1, obviously. Otherwise S = 1+S which is just nonsense R^3 - R^2 = R - 1 + R R^3 - R^2 - 2R + 1 = 0 Similarly, R = S/(S - 1) S^2 = S + R + 1 S^2 = S + S/(S - 1) + 1 S^3 - S^2 = S^2 - S + S + S - 1 S^3 - 2S^2 - S + 1 = 0 Feel free to use cubic formula but I'll stop here
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  11404. Yes there are details left hanging - a strategic decision on how the video wrapped up. I have a few more details in my playlist of supplementary material, including a bit of a discussion on the extent to which this is a proof - have a look at that if you're interested. How formal you go is a choice - before we can talk about surface area being preserved, we need to define what we actually mean by surface area. If we have to go as far as integrating |∂u/∂s × ∂u/∂t| (or similar) then we may as well just keep using calculus. However, we're saved from all of this, as the video already contains a proof. We know V=4πr³/3 and also V=Ar/3, so nothing else is required. You can view this section as an enlightening visualisation (hopefully) of how a sphere's surface area is equal to an area in the plane. It's an attempt at what Grant Sanderson (3B1B) was trying - an explanation that was more geometrically direct than Archimedes brilliant trick of distorting everything to fit on the surface of a cylinder. Thus the "meridian fold" map appears as an area preserving map as the main tool. This could be shown to be area-preseerving using a few lines of calculus. But that's against the spirit of the rest of the video: prove areas/volumes are the same by moving shapes around. It can be turned into a formal proof - the way I have uses the observation that cyclides are locally as close to cylinders as you like (in relative terms, as n→∞, due to conformal mapping) so that rotating them keeps area as close as you like to the original area. The process of equating blue and pink lunes is a version of this. ... and I'm really happy that we had an excuse to share the cyclide glider.
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  11477. You asked, about if it was possible to create a Toro flux with two extra rings when collapsed for an example with two odd numbers. 13 and 15, i do not think this is possible. My reasoning for this is due to the explanation of where the extra ring comes from when collapsed. if we say the number of coils when expended is a variable of N. The extra ring when collapsed is 1 / n * n. this is Due to traversing consecutively from one coil to the next. We would have to skip one coil each time, meaning we would have to be able to go from 1 though all odd number coils and then cycle though a second time for alll even number coils. The could be achieved by, eg taking an existing Toro flux cutting it once then extending one end to continue to making coils between all existing coils and then re connecting the new end to the origin. original toy coils, 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 extended version. 1 8 2 9 3 10 4 11 5 12 6 13 7 14 (back to one) im also not sure if this version would be very stable or not, would be interesting if sombody made one. this would give us total extra rings when flat as 2 / n * n. and suggests that a Toro flux with and even number of extra rings compared to coils must have an even number of coils also. Forgive me if my suggestion to cut end extend in the manner i suggested stops the Toro flux form being a Toro flux. I am not a mathematician. just presenting some intuitive thinking. (as a note you could have an odd number of coils but this would result in slightly less or slightly more then 2 extra rings.
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  11507. I grew up with slide rules. Computers, especially hand held computers, didn't really become popular until after I graduated from college. With that in mind I have an interesting, humorous story to share. First you should know that years ago nearly all engineering and math classes had a large slide rule mounted above the chalk board. The professor would often use the slide rule to demonstrate or to do involved calculations in from of the class of students. Before I tell the story, I should let you know there was an expression in those days called "slide rule accuracy". It is actually a pretty useful concept as it says that only the first two or three digits of a number are really important in a calculation. In fact, I taught this idea when I myself was a professor many years ago. The idea is if you have a number like 314,265,473 you might as well call it 314,000,000 because that is accurate enough in most cases. The additional digits may add accuracy, but are often not of any significant value to the overall result. Now for the story. There was a professor very involved in a long and complication calculation for a class of students. I don't know what the subject was, but let's say it was thermodynamics. The problems in thermodynamics could get very involved with lots an formulas and involved calculations, so it was a pretty messy and complicated problem he was solving. He was sliding the slide and the cursor (the little glass window which enables you to read the numbers off the slide rule easily) back and forth furiously and shouting numbers as he hurried through the calculation. At one point he could be heard to shout, "Two times two - three point nine eight - call it four".
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  11544. Yes, exactly what is required to replace amateur associations with a clear picture from the Real Mathematicians. But I will have to reiterate the video a few times. Adding to Favourites. Because a real Professor of Mathemagical Thought processes is an actual Intuitionist, observing in resonance, coherence-cohesion chemistry-bonding with a purely functional concept in Conception Completeness.., the definition of a philosophical absolute, abstract process of such component that is self-defining quantization cause-effect materialisation of conceptual elements is the Camera Obscura setup, discovering the Universal Singularity-point positioning of the Centre of Eternity-now Interval Time, macro-micro reciprocation-recirculation magic mode of mathematics.., or some thing, holography-quantization from no thing in the general Conception of real-time logarithmic> Singularity-point <relative-timing ratio-rates Perspective of log-base numberness. (It's only the beginning/Origin orientation to Actuality) *** Superspin Superposition-point location logic is inherent in e-Pi-i axial-tangential, point-line-circle-> horizon as infinite Black-body surface of orthogonality, ..so transparent that it's not a clear idea of Actuality, until you get the Trancendental Meditation of point location nothing in No-thing definable Relativity, ie what every Mathematical Disproof Methodology Philosophy begins and ends with in perspectives vanishing-into-no-thing Singularity-Duality Conception. Relative-timing turning points are made-of-making elemental e-Pi-i Calculus cause-effect, no wonder we think the universe is consciousness, but it is simply the Function that is Absolute Zero-infinity reference-framing containment of harmonic mathematics in Truth, not the other way around, which, by default, is what explains observable quantization properties.
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  11801. Fifth time I'm rewriting this, it should be okay now (well that's what I said the other four times). Let A, B, C be the points of the circle, and let's say D and E are the two points that lay on the line AB and AC (respectively, when extended) such that AD = AE = BC. Similarly, F, G are in BC and AB such that BF = BG = AC, and H, I are in BC and AC with CI = CH = AB (this is just the setup). Draw the angle bisector of the angle EAD and let its intersection with ED be J. The triangle ADJ is equal to the triangle AEJ by the side (AD = AE) angle (half of the angle EAD) and side (common side AJ) theorem. Then the side EJ is equal to the side DJ and the angle EJA is equal to the angle DJA and since they lay on a straight line they must be right angles. Then, the angle bisector of EAD is also the perpendicular bisector of ED, and because opposite angles are equal, it's also the angle bisector of BAC. Let K be the point where GH intersects the perpendicular bisector of ED. AH = AC + CH = AC + AB and AG = AB + BG = AB + AC and so AH = AG. Then the triangle AGK is equal to the triangle AHK by the side (AK) angle (half of the angle BAC, see previous paragraph) and side (AG = AH as we have just seen) theorem, therefore the angle AKG is equal to the angle AKH but together they lay on a straight line so both are right angles, and since GK = HK (by the triangles) then the aforementioned perpendicular bisector of ED is also the perpendicular bisector of GH. By symmetry, the perpendicular bisector of FG must be the same as the perpendicular bisector of DI and the same as the angle bisector of ABC, and the perpendicular bisector of HI must be the same as the perpendicular bisector of EF and the angle bisector of ACB. The mentioned perpendicular bisectors must intersect in the incenter of the triangle ABC since they are also the angle bisectors of the inner angles of the triangle ABC as we have just seen. Recall that any point on a perpendicular bisector of two points is equidistant to said two points. Let's call the incenter O. Then, OE = OD, OG = OH, OF = OG, OD = OI, OH = OI, OE = OF (because O is the intersection of the perpendicular bisectors). Combining all that we have OD = OE = OF = OG = OH = OI and so all those points lay on a circle with center O and radius OD. Definitely a very messy proof. It's hard to explain things without being able to point at a picture but I hope this all makes sense and I didn't make any (more) mistakes. Now, time to watch the video!
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  11831. I actually just did the chess board domino problem as a homework in my graph theory course. My proof assumed a bipartite graph (such as a chessboard) and looked to find a perfect matching in that graph. First I found an arbitrary Hamiltonian cycle in the bigraph. It was easy to show that when two vertices (tiles) were removed, they must come from differing partitions for the resulting graph to still have a perfect matching. I then used the fact that such a graph could express a board which must then also contain a Hamiltonian Cycle. This makes the shown method of tiling along the path that touches all vertices (tiles) the obvious solution. In addition it helps with the reasoning behind the matrix for the formula for the ways to tile a given "board". (adjacency matrix of sorts) great stuff! As to the question of whether the removed of two additional (differently colored) tiles would still be able to be covered with dominos, I think the answer is yes. There are two cases to consider. First, the two removed tiles were next to each other in the initial circuit and thus the rest of the board is now a single path. If two more tiles were removed from this board, it would always be able to be tiled by dominos using the reasoning above. Second case is if the two initially removed tiles were not next to each other in the initial cycle. Their removal would then divide the cycle into two paths. If both of the 2 additional tiles to be removed are from the same path, then the board can be tiled. If they are from different paths however, then there is no guarantee under what we have established so far. However, if an alternative cycle in the initial graph can be found such that the two newly removed tiles would fall into the same path, then a domino cover can be constructed. I hypothesize that such an alternative cycle can always be found, at least for an 8x8 graph and removing 4 tiles.
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  11972. I am yet to see a video going deeper than just the slight surface layer scratch as to what concepts can be formed, representative of numerous elements of the number theory field, just from exploring relationships between numbers, functions & operations of number interaction - from the numbers used in this symbol. For me its just a symbol for entry to one entry into a beautiful realm of relearning how I consider numbers & geometry. The slight edge of ego towards those who see something in this symbol as being a 'key to understanding the universe' rather threw me to be honest. I don't really go with the vibe or flow of whether or not there is a key to the universe from this symbol, that seems like unnecessary noise around something not really needing a label as such. If some/most want to stick with that layer, that's up to them. Sacred geometry tattooists are glad for it as too are those who get the cool designs not always having the layers of awareness as to the mathematical beauty in such shapes and symbols which also doesn't matter :) There is without doubt from my side, interesting and mathematical observable elements beyond just this symbol and special characteristics which could be declared for each whole integer or single digit, even decimals... grouping around characteristics, whether results of functions or influence in functions, pure number play from just 1-9... personally this opens up one of the most stimulating parts of my brain... to figure things out without googling them, to then search for the true math behind the sandboxed math which leads me to concepts to further my knowledge now based on that self exploration seed. That truly personally, is something of a key to the universe, or my universe... to not see things only as we are shown but to explore seeing things from different perspectives to realize some quite fundamental truths that our truths are our truths but that some things just seem to be true whoever observes them... At best, even if people play with digital root for numerologist intentions, I am still glad that numbers are explored for different utilization beyond the mundane counting of what we earn or spend or watch on a clock :)
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  12167. I couldn't resist and calculated the possible change for 1€: it's 4563. I didn't expect the difference to 1$ (293) this big. Apropos big, here's the polynomial as provided by GiNaC, enjoy: 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    1
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  12347. "LOL, this just proves you cannot prove heliocentrism is 100% fact, because it also simultaneously proves Earth is in the center, and everything is revolving around us! Huh! Bet they didn't teach that in class. Nor why we went with heliocentrism. Because Einstein and the like understood, out of these 2 options, one demands God, and one just leaves the door open for God, not proving it outright, so they went with option B, there is no God, and cannot possibly be a God, so we have to see it from the heliocentric model way. Period. Case closed. P.S. Man, so many videos just recently, indirectly are proving the Earth is not a sphere, nor are we in some solar system. That the Theory of Relativity is laughably bunk, and that the constant speed of light isn't a constant at all, and gravity and time-space are also not real. Hilarious that those inferences can be made from the info provided, yet, because of the depth of the education, and the utter impossibility of God making us the center, like I mentioned about Einstein, that these scientists literally cannot even see what they are showing. It's like the story of the Indians not seeing the ships because they had no mental framework for it, so they physically could not see them. TL; DR. The Earth is factually and provably not a globe. Basic logic and first principles reasoning proves this. Most science claiming globe and gravity is all based on conjecture and theory, not provable in court level of certainty. If I had a gun to my head, and was told to prove one, I'd be forced to prove we cannot prove at all the Earth is a globe. It's the biggest lie the managers of this world ever foisted on to us slaves. REALLY TLDR - you aren't an amalgam of space dust and particles from the Big Bang, just happened to form due to billions of years of evolution, and our existence is all happenstance, and has no meaning. Quite the contrary. A creator of some kind made Earth, made it hospitable, created us, and everything we see. We are the center of creation. We must be, using logic and reason alone."
    1
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  12585. I decided to look at other paths through the tree and was surprised to find some unusual sequences appearing. There are infinitely many paths which produce a hypotenuse to smaller side ratio approaching sqrt(2). However, the paths where the two smaller sides differ by a constant are limited in a surprising way. I'll notate the paths with L, M and R for left, middle and right child. We saw in the video that M^n for n >= 0 produces triples where the smaller two sides differ by 1. Are there paths where the two smaller sides differ by 2, or 3? The answer is no. It turns out that if (a,b,c) is a Pythagorean triple with |a-b| = k, then the triple can only be primitive (and appear in the tree) if the prime factors of k are all congruent to 1 or 7 mod 8 (A058529 on OEIS). The first few values are 1, 7, 17, 23, 31 and 41. We get k = 7 with paths LM^n and RM^n, k = 17 has RLM^n and RRM^n, k = 23 has LLM^n and LRM^n, k = 31 has RRLM^n and RRRM^n and k = 41 has MLM^n and MRM^n for n >= 0. Note that they all begin with travelling to some node, then repeatedly choosing the middle child to maintain the constant difference between the two smaller sides. Now consider paths where the ratio of hypotenuse to the smallest side is sqrt(5). This can be achieved by having the larger of the two smaller sides differing by a constant from twice the smallest side. We get a similar restriction as before, though this time more complicated. If (a,b,c) is a Pythagorean triple with |a-2b| = k, then the triple can only be primitive if k is squarefree and the only prime factors of k are 2 and primes congruent to 0, 1 or 4 mod 5. I couldn't find an OEIS entry for this sequence. The first few values are 1, 2, 5, 10, 11, 19. We get k = 1 with path L(ML)^n, k = 2 has (MR)^n and R(MR)^n, k = 5 has ML(ML)^n, k = 10 has LR(MR)^n and RR(MR)^n, k = 11 has LL(ML)^n and RL(ML)^n and k = 19 has M(ML)^n and RML(ML)^n for n >= 0. Here we see that the repeated unit to travel along the paths involves two steps, to maintain the constant difference between the middle side and twice the smallest side. Another curiosity is which sequences have the property that the ratio of the smaller two sides approaches the golden ratio. I can't find a pattern to them, but I did observe that down to the 11th level of the tree the two paths that gave the closest approximation to the golden ratio were LLRLLLLLMRL and RRLRRRRMLR. And instead of prefixes of these sequences being the best approximations for earlier levels, instead suffixes are better. Which means these aren't really describing two paths, but that the best path is moving further away from the middle of the tree at each level after the first few, with the occasional move towards the centre. It is quite curious.
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  12601. So I just deleted a huge comment, and this is me giving up on life. 4 years of work ( not continuous, but anyway ) for a puzzle my math teacher gave me in highschool... and all I got was a shifted version of the Gregory-Newton formula ( shifted one position to the right by using (n-1) instead of n... I am literally having a crisis right now, and I'm dying inside, but please continue. At least I'm learning how dumb I am, reinventing the wheel... Anyhow, one note I feel needs to be more emphasized: if the abscissae are not evenly distanced, this is useless to hell and back. I know that oh so very well because that's what I did for about half a year, every night. Now, if the resulting polynomial is 4th degree or lower, no problemo, you can apply Gregory-Newton on the abscissae, and then get the inverse of that function, but for 5th degree polynomials and above, you're fucked cause you can't get the roots. That being said, I was going to try and use fourier series to try and solve that issue somehow, but now I lost all motivation, someone resurrect those two dudes and let them have at it. It's their formula, not mine. Yes. I am really not happy right now. The general Newton interpolation uses abscissae as well in those differences, which account for unevenly spaced abscissae and remove shifting. That being said, for the same case scenario of evenly spaced abscissae, the general formula yields a bigger error than the Gregory Newton formula... Now, there's spline interpolation and shit out there, also the Newton Raphson approximation formula ( which I hate, cause some dick put us through doing that by hand... and it took 30 pages each time, for 4-link mechanisms and also for crank-piston ones, even tho crank-piston mechanisms have a nice analytic formula to them ). ANYHOW, thanks for the video! I mean it. I'm salty cause I realized how much time I wasted doing something someone else did 400-ish years before my time... and if someone told me this like... idk, earlier, I'd not have wasted 4-5 kg of paper and about 1 year worth of free time on this (cause of course I did other things with my free time in 4 years )... oh, god, I feel so bad. Also, I already know the proof :)) I had to write it for myself... but I bet yours is prettier, let's see
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  12783. An idle thought/unanswered question about rearrangements of conditionally convergent series I've harbored for a a long time If you think about these rearrangements as permutations on N applied to the series 1 + -1 + 1/2 + -1/2 + 1/3 + -1/3 + ... the greedy process of selecting positive and negative terms is a way to link any real number to a permutation on N. It can be proved that, among permutations on N, the "bounded" ones do not result in a different sum: if p: N --> N is the permutation and |p(n) - n| is bounded over all n, then the sum will remain zero. This is true in general: for any conditionally convergent series, bounded permutations of the terms do not alter the sum [I've seen this proved in an article in a Math magazine!] Within the domain of permutations we can also establish the notion of two permutations being bounded from one another: p and q are bounded/close if |p(n) - q(n)| has a finite upper bound. My question is, is it true that whenever p and q are permutations that correspond to the same real number, are they bounded from each other? ------------------------------ The rest of this is fleshing out the details of what I mean, and why the answer either way seems very unintuitive (to me) Firstly, let's pin down that there is more than one permutation associated with any real number. For instance, let r be the permutation on N resulting from greedy method from the video for making pi using the above conditionally convergent series. Now construct a new permutation, s, by repeating this process, except we pretend we mess up with an early insertion of -1/3 to get 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + [-1/3] + 1/4 + 1/5 + ... + 1/13 + -1 + -1/2 + -1/4 + ... (note lack of of -1/3 in the subtracting section) and from there continue without error -- adding terms till you exceed pi, subtracting terms until you're less than pi, and so on. Though it doesn't strictly adhere to the method outlined for making a permutation that sums to a desired number, that doesn't mean s does not correspond to a series that validly sums to pi. After all, it's equivalent using the same algorithm to construct a sum to pi + k, for some rational number k, when starting with a conditionally convergent series made by dropping several terms from the original conditionally convergent series, then reinserting the dropped terms. On their face, r and s would be very different permutations. By close examination you wouldn't be able to tell there's anything that links them unless you backtrack through the processes that defined them. It would be surprising if r and s were bounded from each other. Yet they both correspond to the same sum
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  12790. - This is a lovely video. The heavy lifting is done by all the properties of the limit (in a mathematical sense), which are disguised in the clever notation. - 35:10 e = lim (1 + x)^(1/x) as x goes to 0. Swap the usage of lim and write e = (1 + dx)^(1/dx) instead (abusing/exploiting the notation). Raise both terms to the power of dx, then subtract 1: dx = e^dx -1. Finally, divide by dx to get 1 = (e^dx-1)/dx - By using the concept of the car as a vehicle for the explanation (pun intended), some hard issues are avoided, such as "can I differentiate any function at any point?" or "can I integrate any function on any interval?" - We Spanish speakers have access to a very neat opening interrogation symbol, "¿". This is very handy, given that you know that the phrase is an interrogation from the very beginning. - The rule for the derivative of the inverse function is graphically very intuitive after noticing that the plot of the inverse function is the same as the original function but mirrored about the line y=x. Hence, the slope of the inverse function is the (algebraic) inverse of the slope of the original. I'm sure Mathologer is aware of this fact, and probably decided to leave this property out for the sake of the total length of the video. - 27:22 That math joke is brilliant. Here's a similar one I found elsewhere: take the equation x^2 = 25. Of course (?) you can cancel each number 2 appearing on both sides, which leaves x = 5, the correct solution for the original equation. I wonder if there are more of these... - 32:15 Fun fact: the quotient rule for h = f/g can also be obtained by applying the product rule to h = f * (1/g) first and then using the chain rule with the functions 1/x and g. - 33:17 The rule (x^n)' = n x^(n-1) is the same for ANY value of n, not only positive integers, but for any real number. But the proof is more involved and I would start by writing x = e^(ln(x)). I liked the music of the final part!
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  12824. He's not talking about the entries in the multiplication table. He's talking about perfect squares. In other words, numbers of the form x^2 where x is a number in the mini-ring. (Though I guess the same will also be true if you look at the full multiplication table, but that's not what he means.) The perfect squares are precisely the diagonal entries of the mini-ring's multiplication table. But yes, exactly half of the nonzero numbers in the mini-field will be squares (meaning they will appear on the diagonal of the multiplication table) if we're going modulo an odd prime. Why? Well, if we're in Z/p for an odd prime p, then there are exactly p numbers total, an odd amount. So if we remove 0 from consideration, there are an even amount left: p-1. Next, notice that because of how weird the addition is on Z/p, every number can be seen as both a positive value and a negative value. For example, in Z/7, 5 is both +5 and -2. Adding 5 has the exact same effect as subtracting 2. (Try it out for a couple of numbers!) This can be seen because adding/subtracting 7 is the same as adding/subtracting 0 in Z/7 arithmetic and because -2 and +5 are 7 units apart. Now, because of how multiplication works, opposites square to the same thing. So in Z/7, 2 and 5 (= -2) must square to the same thing (in this case, 4). So now, we're approaching the result. Since there are an even amount of nonzero numbers in Z/p, if we show that each square comes from squaring precisely two different numbers in Z/p, we will have then proven the claim. To show that each square comes from at least 2 numbers, we have to show that no number is its own negative. Suppose n is a number in Z/p so that n = -n in Z/p. Then adding n to both sides, we get 2n = 0 in Z/p. But the only things in Z/p which are 0 are multiples of p. Since p is an odd prime, p doesn't divide 2, so p must divide n (since p divides 2n). This means that n is a multiple of p, so n = 0 in Z/p. This shows that there is no nonzero number in Z/p which is its own opposite. Since opposites square to the same number, this shows that every nonzero perfect square in Z/p comes from at least two different numbers in Z/p. All that's left to do is show that you can't have 3 or more numbers square to the same thing. We will do this by showing that if two numbers square to the same thing in Z/p, then they must be opposites. Suppose n and m are two unequal nonzero numbers in Z/p so that n^2 = m^2. Then n^2 - m^2 = 0 in Z/p. But we can factor this. n^2 - m^2 = (n + m)(n - m). So we have (n + m)(n - m) = 0 in Z/p. Since p is a prime, this implies that n + m = 0 in Z/p or n - m = 0 in Z/p. (If a prime divides a product, it must divide at least one of the factors.) The first option gives n = -m in Z/p, meaning they are opposites. The second option gives n = m in Z/p, which cannot happen because we assumed they were different numbers in Z/p. So the only things that can square to the same number are opposites in Z/p. So what we have shown is that in the mini-field Z/p for an odd prime p, there are an even number of nonzero numbers. Every number squares to a perfect square, and numbers which square to the same thing come in pairs. So there are precisely two nonzero numbers in Z/p for every nonzero perfect square. This means that exactly half of the nonzero numbers in Z/p are perfect squares. This leaves that the other half cannot be perfect squares!
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  13058. here's my python code: user_number = int(input("What is the position of the sequence you wish to find the number for? ")) user_number -= 1 plus_minus_sequence = [1,2] even = 2 odd = 3 for i in range(1, user_number): if i % 2 == 1: plus_minus_sequence.append(plus_minus_sequence[i]+odd) odd += 2 else: plus_minus_sequence.append(plus_minus_sequence[i]+even) even += 1 actual_sequence = [1] for k in range(user_number): # print(f" round {k+1}") next_val = 0 w = 0 for p in range(len(actual_sequence)): for i in range(len(actual_sequence)): if plus_minus_sequence[p] == i+1: if w % 4 == 0 or w % 4 == 1: # print(f" - adding {actual_sequence[-i-1]} to {next_val} which is {next_val + actual_sequence[-i-1]} ") next_val += actual_sequence[-i-1] elif w % 4 == 2 or w % 4 == 3: # print(f" - subtr. {actual_sequence[-i-1]} to {next_val} which is {next_val - actual_sequence[-i-1]} ") next_val -= actual_sequence[-i-1] w += 1 actual_sequence.append(next_val) if user_number+1 == 1: print(f"The value for the {user_number+1}st position is: {actual_sequence[user_number]}") elif user_number+1 == 2: print(f"The value for the {user_number+1}nd position is: {actual_sequence[user_number]}") elif user_number+1 == 3: print(f"The value for the {user_number+1}rd position is: {actual_sequence[user_number]}") else: print(f"The value for the {user_number+1}th position is: {actual_sequence[user_number]}") # for b in range(len(actual_sequence)): # print(f"{actual_sequence[b]}, ",end= "") # print("") # for o in plus_minus_sequence: # print(f"{o}, ",end= "") # print(len(actual_sequence))
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  13072. CHALLENGES! 10:27 Pretty much all the details about the shape-shifting rectangles are explained in your previous video about the shape-shifting invariant. All that's left to explain is why ln(m/n) shows up. Notice something strange about how the Mathologer groups these. The header group is the only group that doesn't have m+n terms, and all the rest do, but it's in a way such that the resulting shapes fit neatly into boxes after squishing and stretching. Well then let's try and force this into a box starting at n and ending at m. Let's rearrange the terms a little bit but still preserve this balance group (technically it's a set not a group but shush) structure, in that every m+n terms we encounter m positives and n negatives. I will do so like this: (first m-1 positives) (first n-1 negatives) (last positive) (last negative) Our header group will consist of only the first m-1 positives and n-1 negatives. Each subsequent group will contain in this order: (one positive) (one negative) (m-1 positives) (n-1 negatives) Side note: we can throw these terms in any order within the groups, but each group must always contain it's respective elements. Then we can safely squash and stretch our way into a nice integral. For example, if I wanted 3 positives and 2 negatives I would do: HEADER: 1 + 1/2 - 1 GROUP 1: + 1/3 - 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/5 - 1/3 GROUP 2: + 1/6 - 1/4 + 1/7 + 1/8 - 1/3 GROUP 3: + 1/9 - 1/6 + 1/10 + 1/11 - 1/7 Do you see where I'm going with this? The header spans the range 2 to 3. Group 1 will span the range 4 to 6. Group 2 will span the range 6 to 9. Group 3 will span the range 8 to 12. By squish and stretch we can target the range 2 to 3. Once we go infinitely far into the series we will have essentially just computed the integral of 1/x dx along 2 to 3, which is ln(3/2). You can already see how this applies to m and n.
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  13132. I've found out how to generate clean examples of cubics, to give as examples that simplify nicely to integers at every step. Given the standard form of a monic depressed cubic, x^3 + p*x + q = 0, your clean examples will have the following properties: 1. The p-term needs to be a multiple of 3 2. The q-term needs to be a multiple of 2 3. It doesn't matter if you pick positive or negative for q, you'll simply negate the root when you do (given an example with just one real root). Given a single real solution, a negative q cubic will have a positive real root, and a positive q cubic will have a negative root. 4. When you find a p-value that makes a nice cubic, there will be a related p-value that is its negative, which also makes a nice clean cubic. I've generated several examples by setting up a spreadsheet. I have a column for p, a column for q, and a column for the discriminant, D = p^3/27 + q^2/4. Then I calculate sqrt(D) and -q/2 + sqrt(D), and then -q/2 - sqrt(D) in the next group of columns. Finally, the two cube roots, and the sum of the two cube roots. Hold your trial values of p as a constant, and increment even values of q. Then duplicate formula and look for rows with all integer terms across the board. I came up with only two related examples, that A) are non--trivial, B) have a positive discriminant for one real/distinct solution, and C) are within reason to expect students to solve without a calculator. x^3 + 9*x - 26, and x^3 - 9*x - 28. The discriminants will explode to much larger square numbers that very few people will memorize, even if you do get nice numbers to cube root later on (e.g. cbrt(1000)). A nice clean example with a repeated root is x^3 - 12*x - 16. The real cube roots will add up to the distinct root of this cubic (+4), and the complex cube roots will form two redundant paths of finding its repeated real root (-2). For cubics with three real solutions, any clean example for Cardano's formula that avoids irrational numbers at every step along the way, can only have one rational root. The other two roots will involve a conjugate pair of square roots, like -1+sqrt(3) and -1-sqrt(3).
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  13206. Reposting and slight editing of recent mathematical ideas into one post: Split-complex numbers relate to the diagonality (like how it's expressed on Anakin's lightsaber) of ring/cylindrical singularities and to why the 6 corner/cusp singularities in dark matter must alternate. The so-called triplex numbers deal with how energy is transferred between particles and bodies and how an increase in energy also increases the apparent mass. Dual numbers relate to Euler's Identity, where the thin mass is cancelling most of the attractive and repulsive forces. The imaginary number is mass in stable particles of any conformation. In Big Bounce physics, dual numbers relate to how the attractive and repulsive forces work together to turn the matter that we normally think of into dark matter. The natural logarithm of the imaginary number is pi divided by 2 radians times i. This means that, at whatever point of stable matter other than at a singularity, the attractive or repulsive force being emitted is perpendicular to the "plane" of mass. In Big Bounce physics, this corresponds to how particles "crystalize" into stacks where a central particle is greatly pressured to break/degenerate by another particle that is in front, another behind, another to the left, another to the right, another on top, and another below. Dark matter is formed quickly afterwards. Mediants are important to understanding the Big Crunch side of a Big Bounce event. Matter has locked up, with particles surrounding and pressuring each other. The matter gets broken up into fractions of what it was and then gets added together to form the dark matter known from our Inflationary Epoch. Sectrices are inversely related, as they deal with all stable conformations of matter being broken up, not added like the implosive "shrapnel" of mediants. Ford circles relate to mediants. Tangential circles, tethered to a line. Sectrices: the families of curves deal with impossible arrangements. (The Fibonacci spiral deals with how dark matter is degenerated/broken up and with supernovae. The Golden spiral deals with how the normal matter, that we usually think of, degenerates, forming black holes.) The Archimedean spiral deals with matter spiraling in upon itself, degenerating in a Big Crunch. The Dinostratus quadratrix deals with the laminar flow of dark matter being broken up by lingering black holes. I'm happily surprised to figure out sectrices. Trisectrices are another thing. More complex and I don't know if I have all the curves available to use in analyzing them. But, I can see Fibonacci and Golden spirals relating to the trisectrices. General relativity: 8 shapes, as dictated by the equation? 4 general shapes, but with a variation of membranous or a filament? Dark matter mostly flat, with its 6 alternating corner/cusp edge singularities. Neutrons like if a balloon had two ends, for blowing it up. Protons with aligned singularities, and electrons with just a lone cylindrical singularity? Prime numbers in polar coordinates: note the missing arms and the missing radials. Matter spiraling in, degenerating? Matter radiating out - the laminar flow of dark matter in an Inflationary Epoch? Connection to Big Bounce theory? "Operation -- Annihilate!", from the first season of the original Star Trek: was that all about dark matter and the cosmic microwave background radiation? Anakin Skywalker connection?
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  13336. The number of states in the transition graph is given by: S(1) = 3 S(n) = 3S(n-1) S(n) = 3^n S = 3, 9, 27, ... The length of the path that visits each state exactly once is 1 less than the number of states. L(n) = 3^n - 1 Interestingly, the number of states is equivalent to the perimeter of the Sierpinski triangle. In fact, you can create a 2-graph (borrowing terminology from category theory) where: The vertices are the vertices of the Sierpinski triangle. The 1-edges are the edges of the Sierpinski triangle and the states of hanoi. The 2-edges are the edges of the transition graph. I drew these 2-edges in a different color on top of a Sierpinski triangle, and it looks kinda cool. You get these sawtooth patterns because of how the smallest triangles are rotated. To understand how these two structures are related, consider the construction process. In the case where n=1, both graphs are a simple triangle. The number of nodes is equal to the number of edges, so both are 3. Each combines 3 graphs of the next smallest size to build itself. They differ in how the smaller versions are combined. The Sierpinski triangle overlaps 3 vertices, while the transition graph doesn't. No new edges are created with the Sierpinski triangle, while 3 new edges are created for the transition graph. This gives 3 different recurrence relations: V(n) = 3V(n-1) - 3 S(n) = 3S(n-1) E(n) = 3E(n-1) + 3 Each could be solved using the formula for geometric series, but there's an alternate way of determining the number of edges. L(n) = (2/3)E(n) The length of the path that visits each state can also be constructed recursively. L(1) = 2 L(n) = 3L(n-1) + 2 Once you leave a subtriangle, you never need to return, so you ignore an edge at each level of iteration. This ends up multiplying each term of the series by a constant. E(n) = 3 + 3^2 + ... + 3^n L(n) = (2/3)3 + (2/3)3^2 + ... + (2/3)3^n And this constant can then be factored out.
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  13530. Fascinating. I'm glad you did this one that is so much like one or two I saw about square orbits by "All things physics", only with more maths details on Fourier series. I bet they saw your video first! I can't do animations but just formulae on Excel - and have one set up to make spirograph patterns and can just change some figures at the top of some columns to change the shape, number of points, etc. It's based on the toy version with its limited cog number ratios - but on Excel you can input any numbers. The problem with trying to make the square orbit was if you make the 'hole distance' on the small wheel further out towards the edge of the wheel the orbit corners are too pointy and sides too curved and if you put the 'hole' closer to the centre the square sides are straighter but the corners more rounded, and at some point there is a compromise between square corners and straight sides. Anyway that other video inspired me to get the Spirograph out and draw loads more patterns, and my Mum's cousin appreciated a card covered in them for his birthday! I also printed out some computer generated patterns and left them at church for children to colour in when they are bored or have nothing better to do...! At least that is kind of educational for them if it gets them thinking about such mathematical patterns. It would be nice to see pictures of Fourier transforms of the sounds that various musical instruments make. Wouldn't they just be spiky plots of the distruibution of frequencies / harmonics. Some sounds look fascinating on audio files (I use Wavepad aduio editing) and sometimes I look at the Fourier transform time plot which shows how the proportions of each frequency change over time. (Maybe because I want to find out the frequency of an annoying background whistle or hum!)
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  13534. Proving the Riemann hypothesis: Moments after a Big Bang, dual numbers to be considered at the origin, repulsive and gravitational forces are balanced, but dark matter is breaking up. "Dual numbers?", you might ask. Isn't that the square root of zero? (Actually, it's a great way to start a proof that ends with division by zero - a vertical line, and it corresponds to what I call Doyle's constant that deals with a brief window in time starting with taking the eth root of e and ending with a vertical line. Delanges sectrices for the unflaking of dark matter, Archimedean spiral for spinning up dark matter, Ceva sectrices for that dark matter breaking into smaller, primordial dark matter and black holes, Dinostratus quadratrix for impacting surrounding black holes, and Maclaurin sectrices for dark matter being slowed down over time. Split-complex at one, noting the more gravitational nature of diagonal ring/cylinder singularities of baryonic matter from broken dark matter. Using repetitious bisection (from arbitrary angle trisection), one gets added (SSA) for when dark matter dominates a universe and one gets added for when black holes and rarified singularities make things more gravitational, leading to a Big Crunch. At 2 = a Big Crunch, the solution to the Basel problem, and the "bellows method" drives things. A Big Crunch event needs the net gravity from the localized area AND gravitational effects from surrounding universes. The 2 represents how locked up black holes are making a stacking, planar contact. Everything else are harmonics - effects on surrounding universes. I see this proof as like trying to climb a steep cliff with the process of dark matter breaking up, getting to the top of the hill (like stable atomic nuclei) and then skiing down the "hill of many black holes" past an inflection point where black hole formation and spaghettification happens, leading to the final vertical line tensor of the Maclaurin trisectrix. This is much like I have posted about considering the recursive form of Euler's Identity as being like an old incandescent light bulb that you can see having first, second, and third degree critical points. Ramanujan's Infinite Sum of negative one-twelfth: each positional jostling, mass, and gravitational/attractive exchange between universes (defined by Big Bounce events, considering Ramanujan during both Big Crunch and Big Bang sides) ADDS up to evenness (or a partner in marriage - like half of the whole, I guess). Net gravity increases over time from the breaking up of dark matter, much like a vertical asymptote. It continues to increase, but hits a critical point, much like a vertical tangent, when enough dark matter has weakened and been broken up into the more net gravitational baryonic matter (split-complex numbers). Then, the effects of gravity reach their upper limit - much like a vertical line - at e to the negative e power (where black holes have been flattened). Over a decade ago, I said that the potential energy of a Big Bang was 1/6 times (the speed of light, cubed). If I had said Big Bounce instead, I would have been correct, in a sense. Now, I see how the speed of light would have to be the fourth power.
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  13699. 35:30 this is not formal by any means, but intuitively I would say it is because the bugs are travelling perpendicularily at every instant. I will try to formalize it using calculus and vectors: let b1=(x1,y1) be the first bug, while b2 be the second bug. Let R be a clockwise rotation of 45 deg about the center of the square. WLOG we say that point is the origin, meaning that R can be expressed as a matrix. It is clear that b2=RR*b1=(y1,-x1)=(x2,y2) let d(t) de the difference between b2 and b1: d(t):=b2(t)-b1(t)= (RR-I)b1(t) Computing the matrix of RR-I=[[-1 1],[-1 -1]] we can see that this is a cw rotation by 135 degs, and an enlargment by sqrt(2) => RR-I=sqrt(2)*RRR let D(t) be the size of d(t): D(t):=|d(t)|=|sqrt(2) RRR b'|=sqrt(2)* |b1| because rotations don't affect length size. We also have D(t)=sqrt(d.d). We will prove D(t)'=1: D(t)'=sqrt(d.d)'=1/2*1/sqrt(d.d)* (d.d)'=(d.d')/2*D(t) let dT be the transpose of d (d.d)'=(dT * d)'= dT'*d+dT*d'=(d'.d)+(d.d')=2(d.d')=2 * Transpose(sqrt(2)*RRRb1') * (sqrt(2)*RRRb1) = 4 * Transpose(RRRb1') * (RRRb1) = 4 *transpose(b1') * R^(-3)*R^3*b1= 4 (b1.b1') Since b1 moves in the direction of d, then the angle(b1,b1')=angle(b1,d)=135 degrees because d=sqrt(2)*RRR*b1. Since the speed is 1 we have |b1'|=1 Solving for (d.d)' we get (d.d)'=2*d.d'=4 (b1.b1')=4 |b1| cos(135) Pugging back in we have D'(t) = 4*|b1| cos(135)/2*D(t) =4*|b1| cos(135)/2/sqrt(2)/ |b1| = 1 D(0) = sqrt(2)*|b1| => T = D(0)/v=sqrt(2)*|b1| which is equal to the time it takes to reach on point of the square. This was much harder than I expected. Probably you can get better proofs using drawings and geometry. Not only is my proof long but it requires a lor of familiarity with linear algebra and some non trivial properties
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  13734. How did I unexpectedly "Bump" into this very Video? Well, a very odd cause! A few months ago, I was treading this hall of Clifton Communicare Center on Probasco Street in Cincinnati, Ohio! This is where I have lived in the last 4 years. This very hall has my Room 319B on the side facing the rear view through the windows, giving on some evenings a beautiful scene of the orange setting Sun over the Ohio River and Downtown Cincinnati way below the hill. Well, on a certain day, I was about to turn to the drinking fountain at the turn of the hall to the front entrance/exit out of the building. This is where the cold-water fountain is. It probably was in August on a very humid day. But then my eyes were looking at my tennis shoes, when I suddenly noticed the floor area near me. This suddenly prompted me to close in on this particular floor spot: it was not only near to that cold water to fill in my drinking cup, but also quite near to the nurse's stand, from whence to get a straw to sip the water in my cup. Well, at that particular moment, with no one near around me to notice what I was seeing, I found this specific aged paper wrapper on that very Spot that once came from a now long-ago discarded straw inside it! What was strange was that it was twisted out of regular shape somewhat for being on that spot and trampled on by passersby for many hours. When my eyes focused on it at close range, being no longer a straight line, to originally enclose a brandnew straw, the very shape perfectly resembled THE SQUARE ROOT OF 3 lying on the floor! UNUSUAL! I wish I had a cell phone to save the very image of this to show others or save in my album. That was months ago. I suddenly recalled seeing that square root of 3, while viewing U tube videos, hence, to look up anything unusual about that number. And that's how I bumped into your video!
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  13928. Hello! yes, I'm getting to the end of your videos and really enjoying them thanks. I've taken the bait, and I must say that I was also inspired by Martin Gardener and other similar writers while I was in my teens and I went to the University of Leeds and got a degree in Mathematics (1994). I was one of the few you mentioned in another video who took a third year course in Galois theory (partly because the other option was something to do with statistics and by my third year I'd had enough of that). Unfortunately I was really, really disappointed by the lecturing style and lack of engagement at university. Added to that was Godel's incompleteness theorem and Maurice Kline's book 'Mathematics, the loss of certainty'. The final straw was my discovery of a world of literature and philosophy and before I finished my degree I had turned thoroughly against everything "scientific" and "mathematical" (meaning things mired in mainstream scientific methodology). A few years later I spent a semester lecturing Cultural Studies and Art students about postmodernism, psychoanalytic approaches to art criticism, and other similar things, and some time writing about ethics and the crisis of rationality before throwing myself into setting up small charities and working with people mainly discarded by society. Now I'm living in a remote part of Eastern Poland building a little homestead and helping my daughter with her schoolwork and rediscovering the beauty I found in maths all those years ago. I think that your videos and our mathematical achievements are amazing but I probably won't watch too many more. It seems very likely that man made climate change is going to destroy our civilisation. Maybe we got so enchanted by the abstract beauties we've constructed, that we were blinded to the destructive nature of the lives we've been living. Very easily done, and I don't blame anyone, but I need to get back to my garden, my bees and my goats. Thank you Mathologer and all he best for the future
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  14174. Let's say the cards you have are the 2, 6, and 10 of clubs and also the ace and 5 of hearts. You have quite a few options for the two cards you're going to base things off of (you only need them to be of the same suit). For the sake of demonstrating the trick, let's say you use the 2 and 6 of clubs for the two cards you're going to base everything off of. The distance starting from the 2 and ending at the 6 is 4. The distance starting from the 6 and ending at the 2 is 9. The smaller of the two distances is 4. So you keep the end card, the 6 of clubs. The top card on the stack you give to your assistant is the start card, the 2 of clubs. Now, the other three cards are the 10 of clubs, the ace of hearts, and the 5 of hearts. The natural ordering of these cards has suit alphabetically first, then card value. So B = 10 of clubs, M = ace of hearts, and T = 5 of hearts. You want to communicate "4" to your assistant, so you consider the fourth permutation of BMT, which is MTB. So you give your assistant the cards in this order: 2 of clubs, ace of hearts, 5 of hearts, 10 of clubs. (You keep the 6 of clubs.) Your assistant receives the cards in the that order: 2 of clubs, ace of hearts, 5 of hearts, 10 of clubs. Since the top card is a club, your assistant knows that the secret card you kept is a club. Next, your assistant notes the following three cards: ace of hearts, 5 of hearts, 10 of clubs (in that order). The assistant notes that the standard order gives B = 10 of clubs, M = ace of hearts, T = 5 of hearts. So these three cards are in MTB order, which is the 4th permutation. This means that the secret card is 4 away from the start card. The start card is the 2 of clubs. 4 away from the 2 of clubs is the 6 of clubs! The assistant says, "6 of clubs!" You reveal your hidden card, the 6 of clubs.
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  14257. For the proof of the 4n by 4n colored grid: Any 4n grid in which n > 1 simplifies into an eventual quadrant which contains a 4 by 4 square at n = 2. As a callback to the video, consider the original problem from the film clip. Instead, express this row of cards as a one dimensional grid, with all possible configurations of the domain to color its space with one of the two available combinations: black and white. Extending this model into the complex plane results in a two element pairing of black/white options for each element in a two-dimensional grid, giving four options for a possible cell configuration: (0, 0) (0, 1) (1, 0) (1, 1) Visually, this works best as distinct colors instead of pairs of complex binary numbers. As for the base case of n = 1, again the video of the original problem demonstrates that flipping adjacent values "swaps" the least significant bit with its neighbor, creating the illusion of the smiley face moving to the left. In reality, this operation is the temporary conversion of each overlapping pair of points into a complex value, swapping the real and imaginary bits (if applicable), and returning them back into their original form. In complex numbers from the two dimensional grid, these instead form temporary values containing a real number for the real part on the left hand element, a complex value for the imaginary part of the left hand element, and for the right hand element, a complex number for the real part, and a real number for the imaginary part: (1, 1) <-> (0, 0) (1, (1, 0)) ((1, 0), 0) This extra information that is duplicated follows the same rules for the original one dimensional space, and when returned, is "lossed" when considering the real value which replaces the complex element. With a cube, 6n is used, three elements are required per cell, so I'm pretty sure there isn't a solution (I'm not a mathematician). 4n-numbered dimensions only, as further diving into 4, 8, 12, etc. dimensional grid is essentially expansion of each real part with a complex value, etc. I suspect that the net affect of this sequence of operations maps nicely to some definition of a space filling curve, but I don't think I'd go as far as say that's definitely the case.
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  14430. Proof of Circle : Given any two lines, they lie on a circle because the power of the intersection point is the same. This is the product of the lengths of the parts of any chord on which the point lines. If the lengths are a,b,c then the power of one of the points, evaluated through one line is a*(b+c), and evaluated through the other line is a*(c+b). This makes the 4 points cyclic because given 3 of the points, we can define a circle, 2 of the points are on a single line and that gives the power of the point. We can then determine what point gives the correct power for the other line, and since the point at which the circle and the other line intersect gives that same power (and power is linear with point position along the line), this intersection point is the same as the 4-th point. Now we find the center of the circle formed. Note that the two lines, lets name them ABC and ACB, are mirror reflections along the angle bisector since the lengths of the sections formed by the point are the same, a and (b+c). Thus the center lies along the angle bisector. Note that the center also lies along the perpendicular bisector of the two chords ABC and ACB. The distance along the perpendicular bisector is a) identical, can be found bu evaluating position of perpendicular along the lines then noticing the equal angle, hence congruence. Evaluating another pair of lines and checking the lengths, we see that the center point is the incircle center, and the distance along the perpendiculars is all the same (by congruence of triangles), and is the incircle radius, which are both known to be unique. Also, the diameter of the circle has to be larger because two of the opposite points form the chords aka whiskers of the triangle, which is smaller than the circle's diameter.
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  14689. Aww, my other, imo, much more interesting comment didn't show up in your comments collection. (That said, it was only an aside to the video, more of a phi-fact than anything) Apparently, all such Möbius transforms of φ, (p φ+ q)/(r φ+ s) such that | p s - r q | = 1 and p, q, r, s are integers, will share the property with φ, that they cover an interval as evenly as possible. Now, (p φ+ q)/(r φ+ s) can be simplified: (Throughout this I'm using the fact that 1/φ= φ-1 and φ² = φ+ 1 because phi is the larger root of x² - x - 1 = 0) 1/(r φ + s) = (r / φ - s) / ((r φ + s) (r / φ - s)) = (r (φ - 1) - s) / (r² + r s / φ - r s φ - s²) = (r φ - r - s) / (r² - s² + r s ( 1 / φ - φ)) = (r φ - r - s) / (r² - s² + r s (φ - 1 - φ)) = (r φ - r - s) / (r² - r s - s²) So any inversion involving phi can be simplified in this way. And if you multiply two such values (a φ + b)(c φ + d) = (a c φ² + a d φ + b c φ + b d) = (a c (φ + 1) + (a d + b c) φ + b d) = (a c + a d + b c) φ + a c + b d So in particular, (p φ + q) (r φ + (- r - s)) = (p r - p (r + s) + q r) φ + p r - q (r + s) And therefore, any such Möbius Transform can be reduced to ((p s - q r) φ - p r + q (r + s))/(s² + r s - r²) but since we have the condition | p s - r q | = 1, this can be simplified further to (p φ + q)/(r φ + s) = (p r + q (r + s) ± φ) / (r² - r s - s²) and since all of these are integers, I think this condition really says (p φ + q)/(r φ + s) = (a ± φ) / b where a, b are once again integers. I'm not sure whether a and b can just be any integers, rather than just certain ones, but currently I believe so. If that were the case, even the ± can be dropped, as negative a and b are gonna cover those cases, so we just arrive at (p φ + q)/(r φ + s) = (φ + a) / b where p, q, r, s ∈ ℤ and | p s - q r | = 1 which happens to be precisely the sorts of numbers you encounter in a Helicone with a variety of leaf counts.
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  14705. I'll give my attempt at the similar triangles proof. It's not as concise as ones others have posted, but it may help in visualising the geometry. The two given similar triangles are A₁B₁C₁ and A₂B₂C₂ labelled so that vertices with the same letter have equal angles. We translate ΔA₁B₁C₁ by adding a complex number z₁ to each vertex, such that A₁ moves to the Origin. Then we do the same to ΔA₂B₂C₂ adding z₂ to each vertex and so moving A₂ to the Origin. Let θ be the angle subtended by A₁B₁ and A₂B₂. Since ∠B₁A₁C₁ = ∠B₂A₂C₂ then A₁C₁ and A₂C₂ also subtend θ. Let A₃ = A₁ + A₂, B₃ = B₁ + B₂, C₃ = C₁ + C₂. Clearly A₃ is coincident with A₁ and A₂ at the Origin. Also B₁B₃ makes an angle of θ with A₁B₁ produced. ∴ ∠A₁B₁B₃ = 180° - θ Similarly ∠A₁C₁C₃ = 180° - θ By the given similarity of ΔA₁B₁C₁ to ΔA₂B₂C₂ we have |A₁B₁|/|A₁C₁| = |A₂B₂|/|A₂C₂| = k (say) But |B₁B₃| = |A₂B₂| and |C₁C₃| = |A₂C₂| by simple vector geometry, ∴ |A₁B₁|/|A₁C₁| = |B₁B₃|/|C₁C₃| = k Therefore since ∠A₁B₁B₃ = ∠A₁C₁C₃ it follows that ΔA₁B₁B₃ is similar to ΔA₁C₁C₃. ∴ |A₁B₃|/|A₁C₃| = k ⇒ |A₃B₃|/|A₃C₃| = k ... ① (since A₃ = A₁) and ∠B₁A₁B₃ = ∠C₁A₁C₃ ∴ ∠B₃A₃C₃ = ∠B₁A₁C₁ ... ② From ① and ② it follows that ΔA₃B₃C₃ is similar to ΔA₁B₁C₁ (and therefore also to ΔA₂B₂C₂). Finally, translating ΔA₃B₃C₃ "back" by subtracting (z₁ + z₂) from its vertices, it becomes the triangle obtained by pairwise adding the vertices of ΔA₁B₁C₁ and ΔA₂B₂C₂ in their original positions. ∎
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  14859. I'm REALLY interested in the solution to what the parent of the 3-4-5 triangle is. Not sure I have the chops to do it. I'm guessing either something doesn't work OR, my intuition points to an infinite regress of triangles with sides with fraction lengths. Or maybe it breaks down that there are no (whole) number pairs "before" the first two ONES in the Fibonacci sequence. although I've seen 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5...., what would precede 0? Of course, it is interesting that the ratio of any two numbers in the sequence gets ever closer to the Golden Ratio, always going slightly above it after going slightly below it, when you deal with the first few numbers it is as crude as it possibly can be. If the "goal" is 0.618... then working BACKWARDS we get 3/5 = 0.6 (too small), 2/3 = 0.667 (too big), 1/2 = 0.5 (too small, again), 1/1 = 1 (too big, and in fact THE BIGGEST you can have a fraction be between 0 and 1), and 0/1 = 0 (too small, and the SMALLEST you can have a fraction be between 0 and 1). There are no fractions less than zero that add up to zero, so unless one starts considering NEGATIVE numbers..... But instead I get this weird thing where the LEFT side of 0 is not simply the negative version of the right, but ALTERNATES positive and negative. Any two integers add to the number to their RIGHT, and subtract to their number on the LEFT: ....5, -3, 2, -1, 1, 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5... The only thing that makes "sense" in having the values LEFT of zero alternate +/- is that by dividing any two neighbors guarantees a negative result, i.e. exact NEGATIVES of the ever-conversing Golden Mean value. So what does this mean? Can you continue creating these triangles with these sides? But what does it mean to have a triangle with a side length of 0, or a negative number? Is this connected to the "how" it breaks down?
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  15022. Reaaally nice video, since the years I'm watching I never get disapointed ! But for the first time ever I'm wondering if I haven't found an even more mathologerized "proof" of Euler's formula ! (or maybe I'm totaly wrong ^^). The basic idea is that every convex polyhedra is isomorphic (homomorphic ?) to a tetrahedron, in the sense that you can smoothly deform any convex polyhedron into a tetrahedron and vice versa if you admit that one line segment can be split into two parralel ones, and one face can be split into any number of coplanar faces (because we are not interrested into positions of the vertices, and so the lengths of the edges and areas of faces). So you choose four not colpanar vertices in a polyghedra (there will always be) that will become the final tetrahedron, you let them in place, and you move all the other vertices so that they get colpanar with the three closest fixed vertices (three among the four we have chosen). You also have to align some the vertices with te fixed ones (in order to creat new edges), but I struggle to rigorously describe where and when ^^'. In the process, you will align some pairs of vertices that have a common vertex and some faces that have common edges. Then you remove the extra vertices ; those which cut a newly created edge (created by the alignement of two edges) in two parts. Then you remove the extra edges ; those which cut a newly created face (created by the alignement of two faces) in two or more parts. You end up with a tetrahedron !! In the process of removing the extra vertices, you created one edge from two edges, so you loose a vertex and an edge, so the initial (V - E + F) becomes (V-1 - (E-1) + F) = (V - E + F). In the process of removing the extra edges, you created one face from two faces, so you loose an edge and a face, so the initial (V - E + F) becomes (V - (E-1) + (F-1)) = (V - E + F). So during the whole process (V - E + F) staid constant ; we just have to calculate it for a tetrahedron which is simple !!! Of couse, you can do the other way around (which is maybe easier to see) an construct any polyhedra from tetrahedron by splitting edges in half, which creates each time a vertex and an edge, and then by moving this new vertex where you want, which creates each time an edge and a face, so (V - E + F) stays each time constant. I know it's not a rigorous proof (althought I think we could do a solid demontration from the last two lines above), it is really "intuition based" bur I'm quite proud of having found a very visual and simple "proof" (would be simpler if I had animation rather than text but maybe someone can ;) ). Please master, tell me if my idea is good or if I made a mistake. Thanks a lot for all your content for all this years !!
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  15055. Here's a little program that simulates the tiling of a diamond as shown in the video. To run: copy the code below and save it in a file with type .html. Then load the file with the browser. Attention! Tested only with Safari. begin of code------------ <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title>Arctic circle</title> <link rel="stylesheet" href="styles.css"> <script type="text/javascript" > const covered = 3; function draw() { new diamondPlotter( parseInt(document.getElementById("grade").value), 800, document.getElementById('showArea').getContext('2d')).plot(); } class squareCoverage { constructor(matrix) { this.matrix = matrix; } get() { this.coveredSquares = []; this.copySquaresToCovered(); for (var tile of this.matrix.tiles) { this.setCoverageOfTile(tile); }; return this.coveredSquares; } copySquaresToCovered() { for (var row of this.matrix.squares) this.coveredSquares.push([...row]); } setCoverageOfTile(tile) { this.coveredSquares[tile.y][tile.x] = covered; if (tile.vertical) this.coveredSquares[tile.y + 1][tile.x] = covered; else this.coveredSquares[tile.y][tile.x + 1] = covered; } } class tileGenerator { constructor(coveredSquares,tiles) { this.tiles = tiles; this.coveredSquares = coveredSquares; } get(){ this.fillEmptySquares(); return this.tiles; } fillEmptySquares() { for (var y = 0; y < this.coveredSquares.length; y++) { var row = this.coveredSquares[y]; for (var x = 0; x < row.length; x++) { if (row[x] > 0 && row[x] < covered) { if (this.isFreeSquare(x, y)) this.fill2x2WithTiles(x, y); } } } } isFreeSquare(x, y) { return Boolean( this.coveredSquares[y][x] < covered && this.coveredSquares[y + 1][x] < covered && this.coveredSquares[y][x + 1] < covered && this.coveredSquares[y + 1][x + 1] < covered); } fill2x2WithTiles(x, y) { if (randomTrueOrFalse()) this.fill2x2WithVerticalTiles(x, y) else this.fill2x2WithHorizontalTiles(x, y); this.set2x2Covered(x, y); } set2x2Covered(x, y) { this.coveredSquares[y][x] = 3; this.coveredSquares[y + 1][x] = 3; this.coveredSquares[y][x + 1] = 3; this.coveredSquares[y + 1][x + 1] = 3; } fill2x2WithVerticalTiles(x, y) { console.log(x + ',' + y + ':vertical'); this.addLeftTile(x, y); this.addRightTile(x, y); } addRightTile(x, y) { this.addTile(x + 1, y, true, 1); } addLeftTile(x, y) { this.addTile(x, y, true, -1); } addLowerTile(x, y) { this.addTile(x, y + 1, false, 1); } addUpperTile(x, y) { this.addTile(x, y, false, -1); } addTile(x, y, verticalFlag, pushDirection) { this.tiles.push( { x: x, y: y, vertical: verticalFlag, pushDirection: pushDirection, delete: false } ); } fill2x2WithHorizontalTiles(x, y) { console.log(x + ',' + y + ':horizontal'); this.addUpperTile(x, y); this.addLowerTile(x, y); } } class squaresExtend { constructor(oldSquares){ this.squares = []; this.oldSquares = oldSquares; } get() { this.extendExistingRows(); this.extendWithNewRows(); return this.squares; } getOldLastRow(matrix) { return [...this.oldSquares[ this.oldSquares.length - 1]]; } getOldFirstRow() { return [...this.oldSquares[0]]; } extendWithNewRows() { this.addNewLastRow(); this.addNewFirstRow(); } addNewFirstRow() { this.squares.unshift(this.widenRow(this.getOldLastRow())); } addNewLastRow() { this.squares.push(this.widenRow(this.getOldFirstRow())); } extendExistingRows() { for (var row of this.oldSquares) { this.squares.push( [...this.extendRow(row)]); } } extendRow(row) { return (this.isFullyFilled(row) ? this.addSquaresToRow(row) : this.widenRow(this.extendRow(this.narrowRow(row)))); } addSquaresToRow(row) { return [row[row.length - 1]].concat(row).concat(row[0]); } isFullyFilled(row) { return row[0] !== 0; } narrowRow(row) { return row.slice(1, row.length - 1); } widenRow(line) { var result = [...line]; result.unshift(0); result.push(0); return result; } } class tilesExtend { constructor(matrix,oldTiles){ this.oldTiles = oldTiles; this.matrix = matrix; this.coveredSquares = []; } get() { this.matrix.tiles = [...this.oldTiles]; this.matrix.tiles.forEach(this.moveOldTile); this.eliminateColliding(); this.shiftTiles(); this.coveredSquares = new squareCoverage(this.matrix).get(); return new tileGenerator(this.coveredSquares,this.matrix.tiles).get(); } eliminateColliding() { var index = 0; for (var tile of this.matrix.tiles) { this.checkCollision(tile, index); index++; }; var tiles = []; for (var i = 0; i < this.matrix.tiles.length; i++) { tile = this.matrix.tiles[i]; if (!tile.delete) tiles.push(tile); } this.matrix.tiles = tiles; } checkCollision(tile, index) { let compareIndex = this.searchCompareTileIndex(tile); let array = this.matrix.tiles; if (compareIndex > 0) { tile.delete = true; } } searchCompareTileIndex(tile) { var checkX = tile.x; var checkY = tile.y; if (tile.vertical) checkX += tile.pushDirection; else checkY += tile.pushDirection; for (var compare of this.matrix.tiles) { if (compare.x === checkX && compare.y === checkY && compare.vertical == tile.vertical && compare.pushDirection != tile.pushDirection) return this.matrix.tiles.indexOf(compare); } } shiftTiles() { for (var tile of this.matrix.tiles) { tile.x = (tile.vertical ? tile.x + tile.pushDirection : tile.x); tile.y = (tile.vertical ? tile.y : tile.y + tile.pushDirection); tile.type = (tile.type === 1 ? 1 : 2); } } moveOldTile(value) { value.x++; value.y++; } } class diamondMatrix { constructor(grade) { this.grade = grade; this.matrix = { squares: [], tiles: [] }; }; generate(oldMatrix) { if (this.grade === 1) this.getInitialMatrix(); else { this.lowerMatrix = new diamondMatrix(this.grade - 1); this.lowerMatrix.generate(); this.extend(); } } getInitialMatrix() { this.matrix.squares = [[1, 2], [2, 1]]; this.coveredSquares = new squareCoverage(this.matrix).get(); this.matrix.tiles = new tileGenerator(this.coveredSquares,this.matrix.tiles).get(); } createCoveredSquares() { } extend() { this.matrix.squares = new squaresExtend(this.lowerMatrix.matrix.squares).get(); new tilesExtend(this.matrix,this.lowerMatrix.matrix.tiles).get(); } } class diamondPlotter { constructor(grade, size, ctx) { this.size = size; this.graphic = ctx; this.grade = grade; this.squareSize = size / grade / 2; if (this.squareSize > 20) this.squareSize = 20; } plot() { this.graphic.clearRect(0, 0, this.size, this.size); this.matrix = new diamondMatrix(this.grade); this.matrix.generate(); this.startingPoint = this.size / 2 - this.grade * this.squareSize; for (var tile of this.matrix.matrix.tiles) { this.plotTile(tile); } } plotTile(tile) { var { x, y, yTo, xTo } = this.getTileCorners(tile); var type = this.matrix.matrix.squares[tile.y][tile.x]; var fillStyle = (tile.vertical) ? (type === 1) ? "red" : "blue" : (type === 1) ? "yellow" : "green"; this.graphic.fillStyle = fillStyle; this.drawTileFrame(x, y, yTo, xTo); } drawTileFrame(x, y, yTo, xTo) { this.graphic.beginPath(); this.graphic.moveTo(x, y); this.graphic.lineTo(x, yTo); this.graphic.lineTo(xTo, yTo); this.graphic.lineTo(xTo, y); this.graphic.lineTo(x, y); this.graphic.stroke(); this.graphic.fill(); } getTileCorners(tile) { var x = this.startingPoint + tile.x * this.squareSize; var y = this.startingPoint + tile.y * this.squareSize; var xTo = (tile.vertical ? x + this.squareSize : x + 2 * this.squareSize); var yTo = (tile.vertical ? y + this.squareSize * 2 : y + this.squareSize); return { x, y, yTo, xTo }; } } function randomTrueOrFalse() { return Math.round(Math.random()) === 0; } function arrayRemove(arr, value) { return arr.filter(function (ele) { return ele != value; }); } </script> </head> <body> Grade: <input id="grade" type="number" value="1"> <button id="go" onclick="draw()">Go</button><br> <canvas id="showArea" width="800" height="800"></canvas> </body> </html>
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  15113. Has anyone worked with the following configuration of 4 pegs: Start with 4 pegs connected in a sort of Y configuration, 3 edge pegs connected to a center peg. If on an edge peg, you can only move to a center. If on the center peg, you can only move to an edge. Seems to me, with 1 disk starting on an edge you can get to another edge in 2 moves, with 2 disks starting on an edge you can get to another edge in 6 moves, with 3 disks on an edge you can get to an edge in 12 moves, with 4 disks you can get there in 24 moves (I think, this is where you start second guessing yourself), and at 5 disks, you guessed it... 38? No seriously, this is what I was able to actually repeat if I counted correctly a number of times! Very weird if I'm not messing up. So, then I decided to try an X shape, 4 edge pegs with one on the center. 1 disk you can get to another edge in 2 moves, 2 disks you can get to an edge in 6 moves, 3 disks you can get to in 10 movies this time, 4 disks seems to be 16 oddly, and 5 disks seems to be 24. You could do a Hanoi-ish puzzle presumably with any sort of graph structure defining the connectivity and thus possible moves you can make at each peg/node. I wonder what happens in more complicated graphs... can you get any possible configuration in almost any graph (maybe save some particularly restrictive exceptions), or does it become more and more challenging to get to certain states if you keep going? Certainly something I might puzzle over and play with a bit myself. Edit: I *think*, again easy to get lost in these that actually you can do 4 disks on the Y configuration in 22 moves, not 24.
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  15219. CHALLENGES! The following two questions were written before I saw any proceeding chapters. So any of the following may be redundant, but I came up with it myself. 23:39 Show that the degenerate point is the centroid. A: If you know how Fourier Transform works (or at least have the intuition of it from 3B1B's video), this is trivial. But in case you haven't seen it, here's my take: The centroid of all the other pentagons is the origin. By adding together all the pentagon points the centroids do also add together. The centroid is the average of all the other points, and taking the average is a linear function, which is why this works. This also gives a way to figure out which pentagons to use. To get the center of mass you add the red point, the black point, the orange point, the blue point, and the green point, and then divide by the number of points. What if each time you sampled a point you rotated by 72 degrees clockwise first? In the composite diagram with all the regular pentagons, all of our pentagons begin to shift. The degenerate becomes a regular pentagon, one of our directional 72 degree pentagons (the one going counterclockwise) reduces to the degenerate! By repeating this with the other angles you can figure out what the composite pentagons are that make up our shape. Congratulations, you have just successfully performed a DFT... kinda. This also shows that it doesn't matter how many sides we start with, the theorem still holds. 24:03 What happens when you go for multiple rounds? I'm gonna be switching up my terminology here and there so here: The 72 pentagon is constructed by going 72 degrees. I also call it the anti-288 because applying 288 degree ears will reduce it to a degenerate. The shape is gonna be the same regular shape, that's for sure. What's not sure is the orientation and size. The anti-72, anti-144, and anti-216 all reduce to the degenerate all the same, so let's see what happens to the anti-288. 72 will affect the anti-288 all the same. 144 and 216 complement each other (in the 360 degree sense of complement) so they'd undo each other minus a rotation of some sort. Any set of ears rotates the 72 pentagon 36 or 216 degrees, the 144 pentagon 72 or 252 degrees, the 216 pentagon 108 or 288 degrees, and the 288 pentagon 144 or 324 degrees. The way to choose which one is, is by seeing if the ears "hook" around the origin, that is, if it's closer to the opposite side of the pentagon. If it does, pick the closer to 180 degrees. Heuristics. We'll fix this definition later. Also the variants to choose from are 180 degrees apart, so if there happens to be a 180 polygon in your decomposition (which will never have this "hook" property), it'll rotate 90 degrees if your angle of ears is below 180, 270 degrees if it's above 180, and it will reduce to degenerate on 180. We have an additional 144 and two additional 216s. This will rotate our final anti-288 polygon 72 + 108 + 108 + some multiple of 180 degrees = 108 + some multiple of 180 degrees. Also the ears do scale the pentagon but the gist is since the 216 ears show up on the inside of the anti-288, it's gonna be smaller. So our anti-288 is also known as the 72-polygon. On an angle of 72 and an outer radius of R, the inner radius or apothem is R * cos(36). The side length is 2 * R * sin(36). Now to get the short side we need to look at our isosceles triangle. It has base length of 2 * R * sin(36) and it has an angle of 216 degrees. If we slice and look at a right triangle of 72 degrees INSIDE and an opposite leg of R * sin(36), we have the height = R * sin(36) * cot(72). So we get that our resulting angle is inner radius +- extra (plus if the ears < 180, minus otherwise). More precisely, if R is the outer radius of the polygon , A is the angle of the polygon and E is the angle of the ears, the new outer radius is R * cos(A/2) + R * sin(A/2) * cot(E/2) (the sign of cotangent makes things simpler), and the scale factor is cos(A/2) + sin(A/2) * cot(E/2) We can now more directly define the whole conundrum about the hook thing: a negative scale factor is equivalent to a 180 degree rotation. And even more: the scale factor is negative on a theta-polygon for angles larger than 360 subtract theta if theta is less than 180 degrees, and for angles smaller than 360 subtract theta otherwise. Bonus: on a theta-polygon, the angle ears theta/2 and 180 subtract theta/2 will keep the size the same (you can easily check this by inscribing a polygon with double the number of sides and using inscribed angle theorem, or you can use the fancy formula derived earlier) We can come back to our problem: what happens to our anti-288 polygon? It gets an extra 144 and two extra 216s. Crunch the numbers and we get a 288 rotation and a scale factor of 1 * 1/phi * 1/phi = 1/phi^2 compared to the original. As a final point: talking about scale factors and rotations brings me to the final point: the ears operation is commutative because 2d rotation and constant scaling are commutative as well. 28:36 The sum of the coordinates of two similar triangles is another similar triangle. The second similar triangle is a complex number times the first one. Factor out the similar triangle, and you're done. Note that chirality matters: a triangle plus its mirror or conjugate is a straight line.
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  15252. Programming challenge: Oh ye of little faith, it is possible to calculate answers for values like $2 googol quickly with a fairly "computery" technique. It boils down to raising a 191x191 matrix (of big integers) to the 200-googolth power (or whatever). This is a tractable number of multiplications because you can exponentiate by repeated squaring (square a matrix 340 times and you've already exceed the 200-googolth power). (None of this would be tractable if the big integers became too large, but we know they don't if the final answer doesn't.) My program calculates: $2: 2728 ways $20: 53995291 ways $200: 4371565890901 ways $2000: 427707562988709001 wyas $20000: 42677067562698867090001 ways $200000: 4266770667562669886670900001 ways $2 million: 426667706667562666988666709000001 ways $2 billion: 426666667706666667562666666988666666709000000001 ways $2 trillion: 426666666667706666666667562666666666988666666666709000000000001 ways $2 googol: same but more 6's and 0's Two trillion takes about 1.4 seconds, two googol takes about 10 seconds, 2*10^1002 cents takes about 107 seconds, 2*10^2002 cents takes about 257 seconds, 2*10^4002 cents takes about 13 minutes, and that's the highest that I let finish. The approach is to start with the standard dynamic programming approach to number of ways to make change. (Standard in that this problem is a textbook example or exercise of DP.) This approach takes time proportional roughly to (target number of cents)*(number of types of coins) so it's obviously not tractable for a googol. However, in the DP approach, when you progress from N cents to N+1 cents, there are only 191=1+5+10+25+50+100 values in the state that will ever be used again. It is possible to use 191 variables (in the mathematical sense, not the programming sense) for the state, and the transition from N to N+1 cents is purely a linear recombination of these variables, so the transition can be represented as a 191x191 matrix and exponentiated, as explained. Obviously this is slower and less elegant than the generating function simplification in the video, but it is really quite fast until the actual answer has 10000+ digits, and exponentiating big matrices can solve a variety of problems on a computer. You just have to pick the right matrix. :)
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  15305. Favourite graphical proof of Pythagoras: hmmmm. I'm not a great fan of "cut them out, move them around and it's obvious it's still the same area" proofs. It's really easy to make it look right while it's actually not (see "chocolate" that I refer to below). Related but not the same: Penrose, in Road to Reality, tiles the infinite plane with two squares and makes a larger grid by joining equivalent points so the two starting squares add up to the bigger square that makes the grid. That works if you are happy to believe the squares can tile the plane and that the two squares do, in fact, equal the bigger square. That's either circular reasoning or you need a really good argument for why it's true. I suspect the latter is the case, but I am a Bear Of Little Brain and don't quite see it. Perhaps counting the vertices of the grid and showing they map to just one pair of squares does it. Oo. Maybe it does. Anyway: above my pay grade, as they say. I quite like the first proof with the four triangles at the corners of the square, but I think you have to be careful to just "slide" two of the triangles to the triangle opposite. I think that can be justified rigorously. Spinning them round and shuffling them about really isn't convincing: we've all seen the "cut a bar of chocolate at an angle and make the same bar plus a bit extra" video that (I think) Vsauce did. To be honest, my favourite proof of the "Pythagoras" theorem is Euclid's: it's not visually stimulating; it's terrible at breaking the ice at a party (trust me) but it's long and convoluted and I can actually remember it, which puts it in a small set of proofs.
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  15352. I regret only watching this video 10 hrs after the release, the solution of the final problem takes, like, ten minutes, and is pretty straightforward (though I am sure there is a more clever way of dealing with this problem which involves some discrete analogue of the Stawke's theorem, or the use of group theory): 1) 4x4 board Consider the central square filled with arbitrary different colors a, b, c and d. ab cd There are essentiaaly two cases: bottom right square of the whole board can be colored in any way except d, so it can either be colored a or c/b (these two cases are indistinguishable because of the symmetry of the problem). Let's try a "diagonal" coloring (say, b) first. 0000 0ab0 0cd0 000b The choice of color for that bottom right corner defines colors of squares immediately to the left and to the top uniquely. 0000 0ab0 0cdc 00ab (*) It also defines uniquely colors of the next cell to the top and the next cell to the left to be equal to the color of the bottom right corner. 0000 0abb 0cdc 0bab We've come to a contradiction: one of squares has two b's in it. That means that once we've chosen the tiling of the central 2x2 square, the remaining coloring is defined uniquely, and each corner has the color of the 'opposite' corner of the central square, Q.E.D. 2) By induction: once the coloring of n central square layers is defined, the coloring of the remaining n+1 th layer is defined uniquely, since on every side by the same logic as in (*) and by induction we have two interchainging colors. abababa dcdcdcd and we again have 4 differntly colored corners.
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  15364. 45:23 Rewriting my original puzzle answer for the reupload: In short, 1 1 0 1 1 0 (repeating) is the Fibonacci sequence mod 2. Why does this work? Each pair (or n-tuple) of natural numbers, both labeled k, is offset by a certain angle from the pair of 0’s which could be said wlog to not move. This angle is (0.618k)/2, or (0.618k)/n in the general case. Which branch of the spiral each integer will appear to correspond to is determined by which nth part of the circle its angle is closest to. (0.618k)/n ≈ m/n in the reals mod 1. This can simplify to 0.618k ≈ m mod n for some nonnegative integer m < n We can look at the first two values: 0.618 ≈ 1 1.236 ≈ 1 This is the start of the Fibonacci sequence. It’s easy to see that if two natural numbers a and b add to c, then the corresponding angles A and B add to the corresponding C. So we can ignore the precise angles and just use the rounded results to get the next one! With two branches, 1 + 1 = 0 (opposite + opposite = same), 1 + 0 = 1 (opposite + same = opposite), 0 + 1 = 1 (same + opposite = opposite) And the cycle repeats. (Not rigorous part) Now since these are Fibonacci numbers, as the sequence continues, approximations using these numbers as denominators will become better and better, so the angles will approach whole multiples of 1/n. There is no chance of this pattern being disrupted by accumulating errors. With three branches the pattern will be 1 1 2 0 2 2 1 0 repeating, where zero is a spiral of all the same alignment, and twos and ones are spirals of cycling alignment in different orders. With 4, the pattern is 1 1 2 3 1 0 repeating, with zero being same-alignment spirals, 1 and 3 cycling in different directions between the four, and 2 cycling between one alignment and its exact opposite.
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  15447. "Can you write the numbers 2 and 3 as sums of distinct positive integers?" It really depends on what you mean by 'write'... For 3, [edit] 1/1+ 1/2+ 1/3+ 1/4+ 1/5+ 1/6+ 1/7+ 1/8+ 1/9+ 1/10+ 1/15+ 1/230+ 1/57960 The sum of the reciprocal of all powers of 2 of positive integers sums to 2.... 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + 1/16 + 1/32 + 1/64 + 1/128 + 1/256 + 1/512 + 1/1024 + 1/2048 + 1/4096 + 1/8192 + 1/16384 + 1/32768 + 1/65536 + 1/131072 + 1/262144 + 1/524288 + 1/1048576 + 1/2097152 + 1/4194304 + 1/8388608 + 1/16777216 + 1/33554432 + 1/67108864 + 1/134217728 + 1/268435456 + 1/536870912 + 1/1073741824 + 1/2147483648 + 1/4294967296 + 1/8589934592 + 1/17179869184 + 1/34359738368 + 1/68719476736 + 1/137438953472 + 1/274877906944 + 1/549755813888 + 1/1099511627776 + 1/2199023255552 + 1/4398046511104 + 1/8796093022208 + 1/17592186044416 + 1/35184372088832 + 1/70368744177664 + 1/140737488355328 + 1/281474976710656 + 1/562949953421312 + 1/1125899906842624 + 1/2251799813685248 + 1/4503599627370496 + 1/9007199254740992 + 1/18014398509481984 + 1/36028797018963968 + 1/72057594037927936 + 1/144115188075855872 + 1/288230376151711744 + 1/576460752303423488 + 1/1152921504606846976 + 1/2305843009213693952 + 1/4611686018427387904 + 1/9223372036854775808 + 1/18446744073709551616 + 1/36893488147419103232 + 1/73786976294838206464 + 1/147573952589676412928 + 1/295147905179352825856 + 1/590295810358705651712 + 1/1180591620717411303424 + 1/2361183241434822606848 + 1/4722366482869645213696 + 1/9444732965739290427392 + 1/18889465931478580854784 + 1/37778931862957161709568 + 1/75557863725914323419136 + 1/151115727451828646838272 + 1/302231454903657293676544 + 1/604462909807314587353088 + 1/1208925819614629174706176 + 1/2417851639229258349412352 + 1/4835703278458516698824704 + 1/9671406556917033397649408 + 1/19342813113834066795298816 + 1/38685626227668133590597632 + 1/77371252455336267181195264 + 1/154742504910672534362390528 + 1/309485009821345068724781056 + 1/618970019642690137449562112 + um... I'm going to run out of space, aren't I? now @ 31:52 ... So it looks like I wasn't cheating. and trivial way to represent so here's 4: 1/1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + 1/6 + 1/7 + 1/8 + 1/9 + 1/10 + 1/11 + 1/12 + 1/13 + 1/14 + 1/15 + 1/16 + 1/17 + 1/18 + 1/19 + 1/20 + 1/21 + 1/22 + 1/23 + 1/24 + 1/25 + 1/26 + 1/27 + 1/28 + 1/29 + 1/30 + 1/200 + 1/77706 + 1/16532869712 + 1/3230579689970657935732 + 1/36802906522516375115639735990520502954652700 + 1/1!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!00000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000000001 (Replace each ! in that with 1000 zeros, and you get an answer which is accurate to 112120 digits. (Today is 11/21/20, which is why i used that number.) the 'bc' code to get that answer: ms=112120; scale=ms; s=0; for(i = 1; s < 4-(1/10^(scale )); ) { r=1/i; i=i+1; if(s+r < 4) { s=s+r; print "1/",i-1 ," + "; if(s < 4 && s > 4- (1/i) ) { scale=0; i = 1/(4-s); scale=ms; }; }; }; print "\n";
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  15525. I decided to answer all of your questions. Most questions are copied straight from the transcript (CC). 0:57 Easy, right? For now. 1:12 Okay, what if we have to add a color to itself? Let's just keep it the same. 1:19 That's the most natural rule. Agreed? Of course I agree; that's what I suggested. 2:29 What are you going to do? I'll just guess. 2:49 Ready? No. 2:55 What's the color of the bottom hexagon. Red? Okay, I got it wrong. Let me work this out... 3:07 Did you get it without pausing the video or just guessing? Yeah, I just guessed. 3:11 Sounds impossible? No; if it was impossible, you wouldn't make a video about it. 3:40 Pretty amazing, isn't it? Yeah, it sure is. Now prove that it always works. 3:53 Weird, hmm? No; I've watched enough of your videos to that it's not weird. 3:56 What if instead of ten hexagons at the top we started with nine hexagons It wouldn't work. I did the math. 4:41 Okay so why is 10 special? It's one more than a power of three. 4:45 And are there any other special numbers. Yes: 2,4,10,28,82,244,730,2188,6562,19684,59050,177148,... (https://oeis.org/A034472) 4:54 Notice all the smaller solid color triangles here and there? Yes, I do notice them. It's pretty hard not to. 5:05 Hmm, can you think of a famous mathematical supermodel dressed in little triangles? :) Sierpinski! 5:10 No? I just answered it. Why did you ask "No?" 5:40 Beautiful pattern isn't it. Yes; it is beautiful. 5:50 Butcher shop? Whatever you say. 6:47 Well, let's find out together, shall we? In five easy chapters. I assume that's what the next 23 minutes of my life will-- Did you say five chapters? CHAPTER 1 (6:54) - How special is 10? In the context of this puzzle, it's not too special. There are countably infinite other numbers that do the same thing. However, 10 is the base of our number system, so it's very special outside of this context. 7:01 Why does the shortcut work for width ten triangles. "I have a truly marvelous demonstration of this proposition which this margin is too narrow to contain." ~Fermat Luckily, Mathologer can make a video about it. 7:05 And, are there any other special numbers? We've been over this... https://oeis.org/A034472 7:17 And that's where we stopped. Hmm, I wonder why? You stopped there because 4 is another one of the special numbers. 7:27 Probably also just a fluke. Right? No. 7:46 In this state can we still show that 4 is special? Yes. 8:35 How many essentially different width four triangles are there? There are 10 (reflections listed on second row): AAAA, AAAB, AABA, AABB, ABAB, ABBA, AABC, ABAC, ABBC, ABCA AAAA, ABBB, ABAA, AABB, ABAB, ABBA, ABCC, ABCB, ABBC, ABCA I think I did that right. 9:19 Did you spot the pattern? I discovered the pattern on my own before I watched this far. 10:40 I probably don't even have to say it, right? No, you don't. 10:42 Can you see what's happening. Yes. 11:24 So on a scale from one to ten how beautiful an argument is this? It's as beautiful as it can be, but it's not as beautiful as some other proofs I've seen, so... I give it a solid 2π. 12:16 Can you think of a second way to argue? Hint: switch the roles played by four and ten. Well, you just switch the roles played by four and ten. I'm not quite sure what you want. 12:29 Time for a cat video? NO. 12:32 Well, that's not what we do here on Mathologer, right? Right, it's NOT what we do. 12:37 Is it really just a big coincidence that widths four is special or is there a deeper reason? There are no coincidences in mathematics, except in very rare cases where it's just a coincidence. 12:48 ..., but how can we be certain? This same argument can be iterated indefinitely. Each iteration replaces the initial width with 3*((the previous width) - 1) + 1. Therefore, the pattern continues since 3*((3*((the previous width) - 1) + 1) - 1) + 1 = 3*(3*(w - 1) + 1 - 1) + 1 = 3*3*(w - 1) + 1 = (3^2)*(w - 1) + 1. The exponent of three will increase by 1 with each iteration. I know that I did a horrible job of describing it. Sorry. 12:51 What's up with all these similar phenomena? Sierpinski and snail shells and whatnot? If there's a horizontal chain of a single color, it will form a triangle beneath it. I don't feel like figuring out the Sierpinski thing. Sorry again. The snail shells are merely related through the Sierpinski triangle. 12:56 Are there any beautiful connections? You just listed one. Sierpinski. 12:59 Ready to go deeper? Do you even need to ask? CHAPTER 2 (13:04) - Pascal's Triangle 13:07 The basic rule of two adjacent colors in one row summing to give the color immediately underneath just cries out for us to have a look at the tip of Pascal's triangle. Right? I guess, but "adding" colors seems very different from adding numbers. 13:50 You want hexagons? YES. 13:54 What else? Turn it so the tip is at the bottom. 13:55 You want the whole thing to start from a row and not from the tip? I couldn't have said it better myself. 14:21 Interesting, huh? Okay. 14:38 Now what about colors? I was thinking the same thing. 15:04 Pretty impressive, huh? No. I've seen that before. 16:44 Is 10 still special? No. 16:48 If it were, black and white on top should give black at the bottom. Right? Right. 17:05 instead of 1 plus powers of 3, this time it's 1 plus--can you guess it--... 2. 18:13 Do any of you apply similar this plus that mathematics in anything you do in your working life? Nothing pops into my head. 18:37 So let's see what happens when we use remainder on division by three. YES! Hey, I made something for that. Take a look at my spin-off of a program on Khan Academy: https://khanacademy.org/computer-programming/_/6406985938862080 20:05 Can you see what we need to do? I tried, and I couldn't figure it out. 20:38 What about the top rules? They work! 20:42 In mod 3 arithmetic - 2 is the same as -2 + 3 which equals 1. Got it? Yes, but don't tell JavaScript. It thinks `(-2) % 3` is -2. 22:42 What about the odd-even, black-white mod 2 Pascal game. What about it? 22:52 Why? (2b) mod 2 = 0 for all integers b. 24:01 Figure out the smallest non-trivial special numbers for m is equal to 4, 5, 6, etc. until you get sick of it. Ok, a hint: just focusing on the blue entries can you see another Pascal triangle? I'm going to go to bed now. 24:44 How on earth did they find that one? The internet? 26:38 All make sense, right? Sure. 27:13 What's happening here? As I've already said, if there's a horizontal chain of a single color, it will form a triangle beneath it. 27:45 This really gives a very good intuitive feel for where this self-similar pattern comes from, doesn't it? Yes. CHAPTER 5 (28:00) - Beyond Triangles 28:04 There's one very surprising feature of the original three-color game that I did not mention yet. When you rotate-- No way. 28:32 Can you think of the simple explanation for this phenomenon? I'm experiencing that brain-dead thing you talked about earlier. It's 10 PM. 29:16 Did you get them right? Yes. 29:33 Why? I'm done answering questions.
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  15549. Simple proof, made harder by words substituting for diagrams but let me give it a shot:). I want to start with only 1 color here(because its more than enough). If you dont have a set of corner squares with 4 different colors you have two or more of 1 color directly adjacent to each in the corners of the 4x4, or you have 2 or more corners diagonally adjacent with the same color, these 2 cases are important in this simple proof. First of all every 2x2 in the 4x4 must contain each of the colors, that is our constraint, which means there are going to be 4 of each color in the 4x4, and in no 2x2 can we allow any color to repeat, because this would mean this 2x2 would necessarily be missing a color. The simple case is to prove that 2 adjacent corners cannot have the same color at the same time as this condition of equal participation in each 2x2 is upheld, this very very simple visually, since these 2 corners participate in a pair of 2x2s that cover exactly half of the 4x4 box, this means that the 3rd 2x2 in this 2x4 region can now no longer have a green(example color) in it and still avoid 2 greens landing in the same 2x2. So partial qed, we now know that adjacent unicolored corners are not going to give us a solution. For the diagonallu adjacent corners its as simple as counting and remembering our non repeating rule for 2x2s, our 2 corner squares cover exactly 2 of the 9 2x2s, leaving seven to be given a green square. The maximum number of 2x2’s one square can participate in is 4, meaning 8- the overlap(which is illegal) is the maximum number of 2x2s covered by 2 squares, and we need 8, to achieve this we have 8 squares to pick from, the remaining 2 corners, the adjacent corners and the 2 remaining central squares. A corner square only ever participates in 1 2x2, so we can rule those out right away, the adjacent edge squares participate in 2 2x2s, which means that even if we pick the maximum for the other square we need to color, which would be a central square participating in 4 2x2s we would only cover 2(from the original corners)+2(from adjacent to corner square) + 4 from the central square= 8 2x2s covered, which is not 9 2x2s and so one 2x2 is without a 2. This then means we are left with the 2 central squares that are not sharing a 2x2 with a corner square of the same color, in this case we are now forced put 2 greens into the central 2x2, which means we have broken the condition of 4 colors in each 2x2, that proves that no 2 diagonally adjacent corners can be the same color, and still allow all 2x2’s to contain 4 colors, qed or something. Long winded but i find pure text pretty annoying tbh :) nice little puzzle tho.
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  15572. I see so many math tricks like this where only the numbers 1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9, are used in the making of their wheel or circle. This leaves out one entire number and space between 0 and 1. Or 10 % of our divided by 1 to 10 numbers system. I find a problem with this. It's not a true representation of 0 to 10. It assumes 0 to 1 doesn't count the same as 1 to 2 or 2 to 3 and so on. Everything is being based on only 90% of our number system. And yes I see how all these number games work out so nicely and I used to use to always a slide rule in the days before the $200.00 four function calculator hit the market. But I still wonder about this 90% as apposed to 100% symmetry that's always used. What is math missing? I'm seeing a trick as apposed to reality. Numbers are a progression of growth by always in affect adding 1 or the next number in a sequence. It's not about pitting 100% of 1 to 10 literally. Or 90% of 0.0 to 10. Our reality works on ten equal parts from 0.0 to 10. That's equal to, 10 to 20 and so on. Not 1 to 10, 10 to 20. There is a 0.99999999999999999999% difference to these two number ranges that is exploited making these tricks work. If I buy only one to ten apples it's assumed I'm getting 100% of apple number 1. On your Number wheel I'd be lucky get barely more then just the smell of apple number 1. So if I may ask? What happens if this 10% trickery isn't used? Or more exactly 0.999999999999 against 0,09999999999999 relationship. There is a left out, long distance 0,0000000000000000000001 And this other 0,999999999999999999999999 that is also not represented. Does Math over the centuries ever talk about this. Or just because these neat tricks work out and are helpful we are to ignore this number gap that makes it all possible? And what other other number realities is and has mankind been missing, that if the entire 0.0 to 10 number was used for wheel and circle type tricks? After all, this is the 21st century. Have we not improved in a "progressive" way in math, being it itself is an ever progressing number system science? This is only one of many questions/problems I'm seeing in our sciences. Sooooo, What are your thoughts about this? ENJOY
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  15578. a) Great video! b) It could be argued that the title is clickbait-y, that “Why did they not teach you any of this in school?” parrots the language ultra-conservatives deploy to get uncritical audiences fired up over invented “culture war” wedge issues, and so any videos with such titles are pushed higher up on YouTube’s homepage—and, as I don’t know your intent, I won’t argue that this is your intent … and you seem like a great fellow!! … but it sure does look like clickbait, and that’s regrettable: capitalism may coerce us into all sorts of regrettable behaviors, but the least we can do is resist—profit IS NOT everything! c) That having been written, I don’t begrudge your building an audience or gaming the algorithm to do so … but it’s still a horribly regrettable situation, having to reinforce thought-stopping language for profit because it’s all that’ll cut through the noise and we all need to scrape together a living whatever the cost. d) During the ‘70s, when I was younger than 10, I learned the visual proof for a^2+b^2=c^2 in Latin America during grade school as well as from Mom at home using magnetized geometric figures on a little magnetic slate, and my memory is fuzzy, but I’d wager I grasped this better from Mom than from school; the “new math” was all the rage, so grasping concepts like set theory and if-then flowcharts and the underpinnings of formal logic at a young age were seen as the primary goal of elementary school maths, with memorizing tables being only the secondary byproduct of that primary goal … plus Mom had taken advanced math for extra credit and for fun during her own high school years from her delightful beatnik maths teacher, so wherever my school was still stuffy and stuck in the 19th century my mom would swoop in at home with her abacus and her binary math and her dozenal math games and fill in the gaps and make learning fun again rather than dreary—yay Mom!! Anyway, thanks for the video, pretty much everything past the intro felt new to me. 🙂
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  15595. Seeing your zeroth power sum reminds me of something that I don't really understand why it is taught the way it is. That would of course be, 0^0 Now, in your typical Algebra class, when they go over exponent rules, they say "You take any number to the zeroth power and you get 1. Negative numbers, fractions, irrationals, all become 1." And when someone asks about 0^0, they just gloss over it and say "Just put in the answer as 1, just like you would for any other number" Now, for me, that makes me say "Wait a second, if exponentiation is repeated multiplication, than going from the first power down must be repeated division. And therein lies the problem with 0^0" x^1 = x x^0 = x/x x/x = 1 for all numbers except 0 If you treat 0 as being a solution to x/x, you get 0/0 But, you can't divide by zero. Well, algebraically anyway, you can't divide by zero. In order to divide by zero, calculus has to come into the picture, and more specifically L'Hopital's Rule. But this still doesn't help us with the 0^0 problem, because if you take the derivative of x^0, you get 0. So you're basically screwed if you try to use calculus to solve for 0^0 So then, if even with L'Hopital's rule, you can't solve the 0^0 problem, why do algebra teachers insist that 0^0 = 1? 0^0 is indeterminate, and even calculus, which can help you solve for solutions when indeterminate forms pop up, does nothing of the sort for x^0 where x=0, you just get 0 for any value of x, or in other words, a line with a slope of 0 and a discontinuity at the y intercept of 1, becomes the origin.
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  15692. 12:05 - the block has 9 in the top left and 4 in the top right. This makes 13 the bottom right and 17 the bottom left. This works out as 9*17 = 153, 2*4*13 = 104, and 9*13 + 4*17 = 185. I solved it by setting up a square of unknown factors ABCD, and then I set the product of AC to be 153, 2BD to be 104, and AD + BC to be 185. If you add AC + BD + AD + BC you get 390, but also the quantity (A+B)(C+D). I then simply looked at the integer factors of each number and did trial and error with A and B, given that A + B had to divide 390. Bonus question: starting from our first square, we can get to this new square going right, right, right, left. We know that the top two numbers (9 and 4) are enough to determine the entire square. The three possible combos that this square could spawn from either have 9 bottom left and 4 top right (which generates 14 on top and 95 on the bottom), 9 and 4 both on the bottom (which is impossible), or 9 in the top left and 4 in the bottom right (which is also impossible). Therefore, we then recursively look at 1459, with the two seed numbers 1 and 4. Here, we find that 13 on top and 74 on the bottom is the spawning square. This is show in the video to come from 12 and 53, which then comes from our starting square of 11 and 32. 15:53 - the area is 5. The yellow square has an area of 1. Since a^2 + b^2 = c^2, the sum of the two orange squares is also 1. We can do this recursively and find out that the sum of the areas of the four squares connected to the two orange squares is also 1, the sum of the areas of the eight squares connected to the four squares is 1, and so on. This means that the area equals the number of different sizes of squares in the diagram, as every single set of squares has a total summed are of 1.
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  15942. Here's an explanation of why the function for the number of domino tilings of an n x m board returns 0 if both n and m are odd, under the cut. . . . . . The formula for the number of tilings of an n x m board spits out 0 if both n and m are odd, because it spits out 0 if at least one of the output numbers of the "trig monster" in the parenthesis returns 0. The cosine function returns 0 if it is fed an input of π/2, which is equal to nπ/2n. As such, both of the cosine functions in the "trig monitor" have to be fed xπ/2x to receive a result of 0. In the formula (jπ/m+1) that is passed to the cosine function, if m is odd, then the denominator of the fraction is an even number. We're going to call this number p for the sake of the demonstration. Notably, because the brackets indicate rounding up, j will exist as every value from 1 to p/2, meaning that, at some point, the value (p/2)π/2(p/2) is reached. If we define p/2 to be x, then the cosine function is fed the value xπ/2x, which cancels to π/2. This returns a value of 0. Of course, this only happens when one of the values for the dimension of the board is odd. If one is odd and one is even, then the function will add this pointless value of 0 to another cosine function, squared and multiplied by 4 of course, which received a value not equivalent to π/2- or, for that matter, any value xπ/2 where x is an integer, because the denominator is odd. However, if both M and N are even, then both cosine functions return 0. Both values of 0 are squared to get 0, multiplied by 4 to get 0, and then added to each other to get 0. This one value of 0 will then completely knock out every other non-0 value, through the identity property of multiplication. As such, the function will return 0 for any board of size m x n where m and n are odd, proven in a very long and possibly difficult to parse explanation.
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  16012. Dear Mathologer, this is - so to say - "of road" regarding this video, but anyway I would like to ask you if you could, perhaps, make a video-clip in which you would prove that any homogeneous fluid body (e.g. a drop of pure water (or of mercury, or ...) in a space station, or when the drop is "in the free fall" in a gravitational field) would inevitably take the form/shape of the sphere. When I think about it, I come to that conclusion, but I cannot find the way to prove that explicitly, that is, mathematically. Or, perhaps, you could give some link(s) (if you happen to know about such link(s)) to some video(s), or site(s), where such proof is given. Also, I think (or better said: I hope) that proving the following would be interesting for you and the viewers/followers of your channel: 1) If we assume that for any change to occur/happen, it must take some time for that (in other words: there are no changes which can happen during "no time"), 2) and if during an infinitesimal time dt only an infinitesimal change of something/anything (dy) may occur, 3) and if during a finite amount of time delta_t only a finite change delta_y may occur (to me, this is the direct/inevitable consequence of 2), but ... maybe that should/could be also proven mathematically), then (y, t) is the smooth continuum (free of singularities). In such continuum, an "infinitesimally small shape/"body"" cannot exist (in other words: the smallest shape/distribution of y in t must be some finite-size shape/distribution. And the simplest possible localized (finite size) shape/distribution (of y in t) may only and exclusively be a shape/distibution which: smoothly continually begins to rise (starting from "zero"-value (y=0)), smoothly continually rises smoothly continually reaches the maximum smoothly continally begins to fall (to decrease) smoothly continually reaches the 0-value. I wish you, and to your team, and to your fans, a happy and prosperous New Year!
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  16243. I really, genuinely want to thank you Mathologer! Your videos are alway delightful. I truly appreciate your work. The things I enjoyed the most were the proof about the 2^(1+2+3+...) formula and the explanation about the fact that twisting a 2x2 square is the same than going from an odd permutation to an even one or vice versa. I really liked the animations of the square dance though! Happy hollidays, well deserved. :) I did some homework along the way, here it is. 6:20 I would say no but I can't find a way (if you say it's an easy challenge, then the answer should be no ^^). If I'm allowed to leave one square in an angle and take off its three neighbors, then it's done but it feels like cheating. I wanted to take off two square of the same color which are "next" to each other (like two back ones which are left and right of a green one for instance) but I can't find why that wouldn't work. :/ 10:19 Why does the formule give 0 if n and m are odd ? If n is odd then ceiling(n/2) = (n+1)/2 and, eventually, k will equal (n+1)/2. So, k/(n+1) will equal 1/2 and cos(pi/2) = 0. So, when k = (n+1)/2 and j = (m+1)/2, the corresponding term is 0, which sets the whole expression to 0. 14:10 1x2 : 1 way 2x2 : 2 ways 3x2 : 3 ways 4x2 : instead of going through all of them, we can either set one standing domino to the left and that leaves us with a 3x2 grid which can be tiled in 3 ways, or set two lying dominoes to the left and that leaves us with a 2x2 grid which can be tiled in 2 ways. Total : 3+2 = 5 ways. With the same logic we can see the Fibonacci series appearing. The series starts from 1, 2 but I guess there is 1 way to tile the 0x2 grid, which gives us the whole series we know and love. Haha! :) 14:38 I got 630 ways, I used neither the determinant nor any clever trick : i just tried to figure it out... I wouldn't bet much on the answer... What's the real answer, though ? I'd like to know. 37:32 If you see the hexagons as cubes, then you see, for each cube, always the same 3 faces. Looking at the cubes stack from above, from the left or from the right would always gives us a square the same size. Greetings from France.
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  16298. Slightly different proof. Consider the number of paths from the previous triangle or the initial column to any point in the next triangles (point A). Point B is up and to the right of point A and Point C is directly above point A. We are just considering the path from the leftmost column of the previous triangle or the original column to Point A. Point B has the same number of paths from the previous triangle or column. This is because any path you can trace to point A from the N-th row of the column has an equivalent path from the (N-1)th row to point B. For instance if you go from the 3rd row of the leftmost column of the previous triangle and go left-left-up to row A you can go from the 2nd row and go left-left-up to Point B. However each path to point B starts one higher than the equivalent path to point A. This means if a point on the leftmost column is X times greater than the point directly below it then point B is X times greater than point A. Since Points C is point A plus point B it is (X+1) times greater than point A.. So going up one row multiplies in a triangle multiples the number by (X+1) provided that the numbers in the leftmost column of the triangle to the right follow the pattern of being a multiple of the number below it. Since we start out with a column all 1s. So each number is the number below it multiplied by 1. So therefore in the first triangle we would have each point be the double the point below it. This increase to 3 times for the next triangle etc. Since the lowest point of any of the triangles is always 1 (because the only path to it is straight left from the lowest point of the original column) the leftmost column is always the powers of whatever the multiplier for that triangle is. .
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  17161.  @Mathologer  Oh but of course. :) I always try to think through problems and consider what my answer is to them (based on the thumbnails) before watching anything so I can exercise my mind a bit. Once I start watching the video, my further thoughts are going to be at least somewhat influenced by it, so I want to get down how I think through the problems before seeing anything, so I can compare my answer/analysis to those presented and revisit it with the new information/additional argument and see how that changes things. It's a bit odd sometimes, since some thumbnails don't entirely represent discussions and things like that, but I also just like thinking about problems. :) I also love seeing what I would call "complete" (though I think the mathematician word is "general") solutions to things. For example, the more complete Pythagorean theorem for non-right triangles (I won't remember this right, but I believe it has a - AB Cos th term) or the n-dimensional version (which is easy to understand/think through by considering a three dimensional vector can be mapped out as light sources casting shadows onto lower dimensional planes that merely form triangles with respect to the planes' origins) My first degree was physics (and second economics), so I'm only math-adjacent. :D I've always loved math puzzles, but I hate proofs, because they tend to require knowledge of specific identities. I like thinking through solutions, not finding them based on having memorized a remote trivia piece. So despite friends over the years suggesting I get a math degree and noting my interest in things like topography and logic mappings, I can never QUITE cross that bridge. But I still love seeing the puzzles and solutions or work on them. And I absolutely LOVE your videos since most of the time you break things down (though I did have to puzzle over how S - A = R for a moment...I'm not sure why THAT tripped me up but it wasn't that hard to work out, haha!) I will keep watching your videos because I really like them. Though this one I've paused so I can think through it a bit more. Think I will watch the rest of it. :)
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  17238. planar spectral decomposition :) In one of the odder uses I've ever had for mathematical theorems, I used a similar concept to reprogram a sensor bank. The sensors shared memory with each other, and that memory was both their operating memory and their (immediate) storage as the data went through pre-processing per-bank and eventually sent it back to the computer. Instead of plugging into . . . a lot . . . of sensor banks, which, even if the data transfer was instant (it was not), would still take a long time, I wanted to plug into one sensor and use the fact that each sensor bank shared memory with its neighbours to reprogram them all. The direct approach, ("copy your memory"), didn't work because the sensors can only access some memory by actively mutating it. The quine approach probably held water, but I couldn't come up with one. But using the fact that they actively mutate the memory, I could define a chain of sensors where I directly modified the memory in the first, and the last one in the chain was the one being programmed correctly. Then I remove the last one from the chain . . .and so on recursively until I can just program the sensor I plugged into directly. In order to figure out how the bits were flipped across everything was a spectral decomposition, and I pictured it as decomposition of a polygon, and it ended up being an 8-cycle IIRC. So I only needed to transmit 8 different core files (plus a few for as I moved up the chain and started telling each member in the chain to also modify the memory it shared with members already in the chain), in order to reprogram every sensor from just one :) The files would mutate as they passed along the chain until they ended up in their original form. Everytime we needed to reprogram that device, it easily saved 3-4 hours of labour, (instead turning it into about 8 hours of plug it in and walk away).
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  17366. The visual representation of the Euclidean algorithm at 24:27 is really cool because it shows that consecutive Fibonacci numbers are always relatively prime. Try working it out yourself, but if not I have tried to write out the reasoning although a youtube comment isn't a good format for a visual proof: Numbers are relatively prime when the GCD is 1, which in terms of the visual euclidean algorithm means the last "remainder" rectangle you consider ends up being a 1 x N rectangle where 1 is any integer. Consider the rectangle 1 X 1, each side represents the first 2 Fibonacci numbers. As 1x1 is a rectangle in the form 1 x N we know they are relatively prime from the visual euclidean algorithm. Likewise with the next pair of consecutive terms 2 and 1, which are represented by a 2 X 1 rectangle. However the next term is more interesting. We can construct a 2 X 3 rectangle by attaching a 2 X 2 square onto our 2 X 2 square onto the side of the 1 * 2 rectangle. The new larger rectangle is a 2 + 1 X 2 rectangle, or a 3 X 2 rectangle. This represents the next two terms of the Fibonacci sequence. (This is the same visual construction of the fibonacci sequence as is used to construct a golden spiral.) We can also see that this new diagram shows the visual euclidean algorithm showing the GDC of 2 and 3 is 1. We can also easily see that for any two fibonacci numbers a and b, by constructing a rectangle of side lengths and b using the golden spiral method, we also end up constructing proof that the Euclid formula shows that A and B are relatively prime. It's pretty cool that the Euclid algorithm is so closely linked to sqrt(2) and the golden ratio
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  17424. The Oral Torah, the Talmud, was actually written down in 2 stages to prevent the Oral transmission from Sinai from being lost forever. The Mishnayot (Mishnah) was written down by Rabbi Yehudah HaNassi (Judah the Prince) who completed his shorthand outline called the Mishnah in 220 ce. This came after the Destruction of the Bar Kokhba Revolt by Rome's Hadrian in 135 ce (when he renamed Judea as Palestine 800 years after the original Philistine Sea people had gone extinct). The blow from this destruction of the 2nd Judean Revolt was population wise more destructive than when Titus under Vespasian destroyed the 2nd Temple in 70 ce. Because of the intensity of Hadrian's destruction amongst the Rabbinic population, the Oral Torah would have been lost had it not been written down within the next 80 years. Judah the Prince completed this work in Tiberius (Tiveriya) on the shore of the Sea of Galilee. The 2nd stage, the Gemorrah, of the Talmud took place in 2 separate geographical locations: 1. In Judea (now renamed Palestine after Hadrian) by the end of the 4th Century, the Rabbis now headquartered in Tiberius had to complete the text of the Gemorrah in 375 ce within about 50 years of Constantine's Roman Catholicizing the Roman Empire in 325 ce once again because of severe persecution. 2. The Babylonian Gemorrah in 2 cities in ancient Babylon (Sura and Pumbeditha) in 500 ce. also because of severe persecution by the Zoastrian Persians. I think Pumbeditha was renamed Fallujah. But it is true that Judah the Prince's 220 ce writing of the Mishnah, the Oral Torah in outline form, is at the Core of both Talmuds (the Tiberian aka the Yerushalayim and the Babylonian) Talmuds. The Mishnah and the Gemorrah together are in that Center section of the Talmud.
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  17438. Question: while 10 is numerator, for which both denominators X and Y, that resulting division for each gives other number (denominator) at the zero-symetry? I] 10/X= must be 0.Y0Y0Y0Y0Y0Y..... 10/Y= must be 0.X0X0X0X0X0X..... II] X<Y, X is number as ab, Y is a number as (a+1)b for example: X=57 then Y=67. Y>X and Y-X=10. Y/X=[(a+1)/X + b/X] x (Y-X)= must be 1.Y0Y0Y0Y.... X/Y= is gonna be at the 9 symetry opposite reverse of X (ba) that is 0.ba9ba9ba9ba9ba9.... In Reel and Irreal numbers universe there is only two unique numbers reach this rule, those are 27 and 37. 10/27= 0.37037037037..... 10/27 gives the other one (37) at 0 symethry... 10/37= 0.27027027027..... 10/37 gives the other one (27) at right-left symethry of Zero. 37>27 and 37-27=10 37/27= (27+10)/27=1+0.37037037... =1.37037037... And 27/37= 0.729729729729... 27/37 gives opposite reverse of 27 at symethry of 9! See the symetrycity for 0 and 9... Secret correlation!: Remember for 27 2+7= 9 And for 37 3+7= 10 |27-37|= 10 37{27+10}>27 then 27/27+10/27= 1.37037037... symethry of 0, of 10's 0 (1,0). Numerator 37 comes at 0 symetry. [I] 27 {27+0 or 37+(-10)} < 37 then No 0 symethry but 9 opposite reverse of 27 after 0 decimal = 0.72 9 72 9 72 9 ...... Numerator 27 comes at its opposite reverse at 9-symetry [II] On the other hand we may assume while numerator < denominator after 0 decimal denominator comes with its opposite reverse mutiplied by 10 and 1 substracted That is the say: 37 Opp.Rev. 73 73x(37-27)=73×10=730 730-1=729 {here 1 comes from |27-37|/(37-27)=1 and/or {37} 3+7=10 {27} 2+7= 9 10-9=1 Remember 37 is {2+1}7 And 27 is {3-1}7 {2+0}7 Then 27/37= must be 0.729 729 729....
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  17611. My favorite from this video is definitely the section on the Euler-Mascheroni constant; the reason I like it the most is because the argument can very easily be adapted to prove the existence of the Euler-Mascheroni constant (that is, the fact that the difference H_n - ln n converges) quite beautifully. Note that this is essentially a visualization of the standard proof comparing the harmonic series with the integral of 1/x, which I like because I never even considered this aspect before. Also, regarding your challenge about the value of the Euler-Mascheroni constant: Note that, since the function 1/x is convex amongst the strictly positive real numbers, the function defined piecewise on the interval [k, k + 1] (with k being a strictly positive integer) by f(x) := 1/k + (x - k)(1/{k+1} - 1/k) is always greater than or equal to the function 1/x (and trivially always less than or equal to the piecewise constant function 1/k on the interval [k, k + 1]). Since all these functions are integrable, it follows by monotonicity that the definite integrals from _1 to some greater integer upper bound n are also less than or equal to one another. More precisely, a simple estimation shows that the integrals of f and the aforementioned piecewise constant function (whose value, remember, is just the n-th partial sum of the harmonic series) differ by exactly 1/2 (1 - 1/n)_. This immediately implies that, as _n dashes off to infinity, the integral of their difference (which, by linearity, is the same thing as the difference of their integrals) converges to 1/2_. From this, it follows that the integral of the difference of the piecewise constant function and the function _1/x_, which converges to the Euler-Mascheroni constant as _n goes to infinity, is greater than or equal to 1/2 (1 - 1/n) (again, by monotonicity)– and, by the limit comparison theorem, this shows the Euler Mascheroni constant is greater than or equal to 1/2. Anyone who hasn’t drawn a picture at this point should do so now, because this proof is way more obvious and straightforward than it looks. Essentially, I am just cutting out right triangles that make up exactly half of the area covered by a rectangle of length 1 and width 1/k - 1/{k+1}. Translating them horizontally so that they line up in the unit square then leads to the desired result. Also, the careful reader will have noticed that I compared the n-1-th harmonic number with the natural logarithm of n_, rather than comparing the _n-th harmonic number with the natural logarithm of n + 1 (which is what was done in the video). Most commonly, you will see the Euler-Mascheroni constant defined as the limit of the difference of the n-th harmonic number and the natural logarithm of n – clearly, these definitions are all equivalent, given that they simply boil down to some routine re-indexing and a single term of the harmonic series (which gets arbitrarily small for sufficiently large _n_).
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  17705. aight heres a quick whack at the first puzzle: in addition to the n^x count of squares (1+4+9+16 or 1^2 + 2^2 + 3^2 + 4^2, summarised as the sum 1->n-1: n^2 where n is the dimension of the point matrix), each of these squares has additional "tilted squares" that can be drawn equal to the amount of "unnecesary vertices" in a given side of said square, that is, points which a given "level square"'s side passes through before reaching the main vertice on each end of the side. so the 4*4 square (the largest one that passes through all the perimeter points) has 3 tilted squares (the first of which is given as an example with vertices {[0,1] [1,5] [5,4] [4,0]}) from their you can imagine the other two, one being a mirrored version of the example, and the other passing through the centre points on each side of the matrix. Since theirs only one of these 4*4 squares, the amount of squares is (1^2)*(1+3). Following this to the 3*3 squares, they only have 2 "unnecesary vertices" so each will yield 2 "tilted squares", as there is four of such "level squares" that gives us (2^2)*(1+2). Following this pattern we can say the reamining smaller squares amount to (3^2)*(1+1) and (4^2)*(1+0). (1^2)*(4) (2^2)*(3) (3^2)*(2) (4^2)*(1) -------------------------- 4+12+18+16 = 50 This formula can be summarised entirely by: For a square n points wide and n points tall, the amount of uniquely positioned squares that can be drawn with vertices within this square of points; summation of x = 0 --> n : (x^2)*(n-x) --------------------------------------------------- this essentially gives us our previous calculation for a points square of 5*5: x = 0 --> 5 x = 0 : (0^2)*(5-0) = 0 x = 1 : (1^2)*(5-1) = 4 x = 2 : (2^2)*(5-2) = 12 x = 3 : (3^2)*(5-3) = 18 x = 4 : (4^2)*(5-4) = 16 x = 5 : (5^2)*(5-5) = 0 Total sum = 50 Edit: x = 0 --> n : nx^2 - x^3 is also valid if you don't like brackets I'll do the cubicle grid another day
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  17736. My solution to calculating the number of squares on an (n,n) grid would be: S=sum((n-k)^2*k from k=1 to k=n-1) where S is the number of squares. This is derived by projecting the squares on the horizontal/vertical axis of the grid. For example, on a 6x6 grid a tilted square could be the one, where you move from corner A to corner B (2,3) (=2 on one axis, 3 on the other). This square obviously projects as a size 5x5 square on the grid (you need horizontally and vertically 6 grid points to draw in the tilted square). It fits once inside the 6x6 grid, as you can neither translate it vertically nor horizontally. The table of possible squares on a 6x6 grid would therefor be: (side length): (vertical distance, horizontal distance),(...) 5: (0,5),(1,4),(2,3),(3,2),(4,1) where (0,5) is the obvious big enveloping square. These all fit once. 4: (0,4),(1,3),(2,2),(3,1) 3: (0,3),(1,2),(2,1) 2: (0,2),(1,1) 1: (0,1) Notice how some combinations appear again (but mirrored). Technically all should appear twice, only that there's no visible distinction between (0,j) and (j,0) as well as (j,j) and (j,j), which is why they aren't counted twice. The number of times a square occurs on the 6x6 grid is then easy to calculate by summing up how often its projection side length fits into the grid. For example all with projected side length 3 fit in a 6x6 grid 9 times. The number of times side length k fits into a NxN grid is (N-k)^2. Therefor we get the total number of squares as S= sum((n-k)^2*k from k=1 to k=n-1) (The sum could also start at 0 and end at n, but both terms are 0)
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  17932. The spiral drawn at 41:05 is mostly an irrational one - except for the first two squares and their sides, and for the square after the first square with an area of two. It starts with a rational equal sided triangle with a hypotenuses of root-of-two. then its a non-equal sided triangle with 1 and root-of-two making the 3 = 1 + 2 or as a side length notation to be a=root-of-two, b=root-of-three and c=root-of-five. resolved to c the formula is c = root(a² + b²) As shown the side length are going to be totally irrational starting with this third triangle. little rationale: ist not resembling the previously referenced 3-4-5 scheme anymore but using its totally own space. still its nice. a 3-4-5 would have a set of squares with an area of 9+16=25 whilst in above the most closest set of tagged area values is 8+13=21 as can be seen. And to make the numeric design "difference" even more clear none of these numbers at close to the 3-4-5 area is the square of any rational number. the 8 is the cubic-of-two, the 13 is a prime number and the 21 is the product of 3 and 7 which both are primes. Just for curiosity - walking a bit more along the Fibonacci sequence: a little further, the number 34 pops up which can be factorized as 17 and 2 which both are primes again. then 55 is 5 times 11 - two primes. 89 is a true prime number - and i feel surprised about it. 144 is 12 times 12 and suddenly works as a perfect square with a perfect rational side length. or further factorized: 3*4 and 3*4, or 3*3 and 4*4 233 again goes for being a true prime number. 377 is made up by 13 and 29 - both are prime numbers 610 is made up of factors 2, 5 and 61 - where the last is a noticeable high prime number. 987 is made up of factors 3 * 7 * 47 - thus also built up from a relatively large prime number. lets pause here and let it sink a bit. It's not at all clear or anyways sure to expect that two really rational numbers for side length will ever appear in direct sequence - but also its neither totally impossible that it can be when only doing it with that sort of approach by factorization. The Fibonacci sequence results in a relatively noticeable chance to find higher oder prime numbers, with also intermediate values having relatively big prime factors. That's indeed not a mathematical proof - just an observation that can be drawn for a relatively small lot from that series. Those all might be known by the mathematicians dealing with the subject for already some while - and sort of still unresolved up to now (unless someone already got it recently) pattern assumption.
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  18093. As our Mathematics Professor said, "You just look at it and..." Euler's e-Pi-i 1-0-infinity instantaneous trancendental self-defining cross-sectional wave-particle coordination-identification positioning, a cause-effect of convergent sequences summed as the all-histories Reciproction-recirculation Singularity Unit Circle.., at the inside-outside holographic relative-timing numberness ratio-rates fractal boundary, of 0-1-2-ness projection-drawing probability, of AM-FM all-ways all-at-once all scale resonance, in/of QM-TIME ONE-INFINITY i-reflection Containment-Completeness.., after a bit of practice in Symbology.., and this is just the Flash beginning, Eternity-now Origin-zero temporal vortex-vertex Interval Event Forever because e-Pi-i is 1-0-infinity Entanglement, the probability range-spectrum inside-outside holographic instantaneous superposition=> interference Singularity-Lensing of Logarithmic positioning. You can say that this is the Observer's POV of Reciproction-recirculation Unity of 2-ness in 3D-T Perspective, self-defining substantiation experience of self-Self tuning-probability in the 1-0-infinity instantaneous flash recognition, universal positioning system in which Thinking Fast and Slow orientation can retrieve AM-FM memory associations in tune with our individual state-of-mind, according to empirical i-reflection e-Pi-i inside-outside holographic presence = resonance holistically. Flash recognition takes Time Duration Timing to think about when you use the Math Professor approach to look, listen, hear and see what you're probably knowing about who, what, how and why you're inside-outside this presence of conscious awareness Actuality. (No-thing definable = no labelling)
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  18105. let debts = [30, 20, 50]; // initial debt amounts let estateSlider; let debtInput; let updateButton; let totalDebt; let maxDebt; let scaleFactor; // pixels per debt–unit // drawing parameters const containerBottom = 350; // y–coordinate for vessel bottoms const vesselWidth = 60; const vesselSpacing = 20; const leftMargin = 50; function setup() { createCanvas(800, 400); background(240); // Create an input field for comma-separated debt amounts. debtInput = createInput("30,20,50"); debtInput.position(20, 20); // Create a button to update the vessels based on input. updateButton = createButton("Update Vessels"); updateButton.position(debtInput.x + debtInput.width + 10, 20); updateButton.mousePressed(updateDebts); // Initialize slider and drawing parameters. updateDebts(); } function updateDebts() { // Parse the input into an array of positive numbers. let inputStr = debtInput.value(); let parts = inputStr.split(','); debts = parts.map(s => parseFloat(s.trim())).filter(n => !isNaN(n) && n > 0); if (debts.length === 0) { // Fallback if input is invalid. debts = [30, 20, 50]; } // Compute total debt (estate max) and maximum debt. totalDebt = debts.reduce((a, b) => a + b, 0); maxDebt = Math.max(...debts); // (Re)create the slider: range is 0 to totalDebt. if (estateSlider) { estateSlider.remove(); } estateSlider = createSlider(0, totalDebt, 0, 0.1); estateSlider.position(20, 50); // Set a scale factor so that the tallest vessel fits nicely. // We leave a 50–pixel margin at the top. scaleFactor = (containerBottom - 50) / maxDebt; } function draw() { background(240); // Display current estate amount. fill(0); noStroke(); textSize(14); text("Estate (water) amount: " + nf(estateSlider.value(), 1, 2), 20, 90); let estate = estateSlider.value(); // Compute the common water–level h (in debt–units) so that // sum_i min(debt[i], h) = estate. let h = computeWaterLevel(debts, estate); // For each vessel, the allocated amount is min(debt, h) let allocations = debts.map(d => Math.min(d, h)); // Draw a horizontal line at the common water level (if h>0). if (h > 0) { stroke(0, 0, 255, 150); strokeWeight(2); let commonY = containerBottom - h * scaleFactor; line(0, commonY, width, commonY); } // Draw each vessel. for (let i = 0; i < debts.length; i++) { let x = leftMargin + i * (vesselWidth + vesselSpacing); let d = debts[i]; let allocation = allocations[i]; let vesselHeight = d * scaleFactor; // Draw the vessel outline. noFill(); stroke(0); rect(x, containerBottom - vesselHeight, vesselWidth, vesselHeight); // Draw the water fill (blue rectangle). noStroke(); fill(0, 150, 255, 200); let waterHeight = allocation * scaleFactor; rect(x, containerBottom - waterHeight, vesselWidth, waterHeight); // Label the vessel: show Debt and Payment (allocation). fill(0); noStroke(); textSize(12); textAlign(CENTER); text("Debt: " + d, x + vesselWidth / 2, containerBottom - vesselHeight - 10); text("Pay: " + nf(allocation, 1, 2), x + vesselWidth / 2, containerBottom + 15); } } // Given an array of debts and an estate amount, compute h so that // sum_i min(debt[i], h) = estate. // (This is the “hydraulic” interpretation of the constrained equal awards rule.) function computeWaterLevel(debts, estate) { let totalClaims = debts.reduce((a, b) => a + b, 0); // If the estate is enough to pay all debts, return maxDebt. if (estate >= totalClaims) { return maxDebt; } // Binary search for h in the interval [0, maxDebt]. let low = 0; let high = maxDebt; let h; for (let i = 0; i < 50; i++) { h = (low + high) / 2; let sum = 0; for (let d of debts) { sum += Math.min(d, h); } if (sum < estate) { low = h; } else { high = h; } } return (low + high) / 2; }
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  18120. Real-world harmonic series example - a bit 'off the beaten path.' Consider that you're holding a 1-liter jug of water. You're standing next to an Olympic-size swimming pool attempting to fill it with water. In the first setup, you are allowed to start by filling the pool with 1 full jug, then 1/2 of one jug, then 1/4 of one jug, then 1/8 of one jug, then 1/16 of one jug, then... so on forever. In the second setup, you are allowed to start by filling the pool with 1 full jug, then 1/2 of one jug, then 1/3 of one jug, then 1/4 of one jug, then... so on forever. To a layman, both of these situations seem nearly identical. However, the brilliant thing is, all the effort in the first setup and you might as well have just thrown in two full jugs of water. You'll hardly make a dent in the entire pool. But, with the second setup, you will eventually fill the entire pool. Moreover, you can fill many, many swimming pools; as many as you desire, in finite time (ignoring potential issues arising when you've reached some extremely small portion of a liter, to the point that it's a few mere molecules of water and hardly discernible as liquid H20... however I imagine the sun might explode before this occurs?). It's remarkable how such a (realistically) small change in the process so tremendously changes the solution to the problem. Question for anyone reading - I am curious how long it would take (at say, one pour per second?) to fill an olympic-size pool. They have 2.5 million liters, by the way. Considering the billionth harmonic number (so after a billion iterations) is only just over 20, I think we might be in "heat death of the universe would come first" territory.
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  18208. For the problem of maximum number of moves to turn all faced-down cards to face-up card, it goes like this: We start from the far right card and turn the card up. Then the card to the left of it, then the card to the left of that and so on, until we reach the far left card which then will be faced up but all the rest of the cards will be faced down which are to the right. So all the cards will be faced down except the far left card. Like this: Example (1) 111 -> 110 101 011 By moving like this, we only turn up one card per move and no more, where also no less is possible either. But on every move that the right card goes from up to down-faced, the number of faced-up cards will remain the same, and that helps to extend the number of moves without losing cards. So in the example (1) above, for 3 cards (or representing it, a 3 digit number), we could extend the turning up of card to 3 moves so that only 1 card has turned up in the end. Then after that, we can't to anything to the leftmost card, so we are left with two cards, which similarly will take 2 moves, and then we are left with 1 card, which takes 1 move at most. Then we are left with no cards to turn up, and all cards are already turned up. So it took 3+2+1 moves at most to turn all cards up. Here is the representation with 1s and 0s where 1 is faced-down and 0 is faced-up: 111 (starting state) 110 101 011 (3 moves to get here) 010 001 (2 more moves to get here) 000 (1 more move to get here) result for 3 cards: 3+2+1 => 6 moves at most Similarly for 4 cards would be 4+3+2+1 moves at most which by the formula n(n+1)/2 where n=4 we could easily calculate the sum to be 4(4+1)/2 => 10 moves at most. So That's it. For n cards, we have n(n+1)/2 moves at most.
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  18260. Hi :) Just finished to the end and as per your request: I am just finishing my degree in theoretical physics, so my maths is approximately LinA 1-2, Ana 1-3, function theory, classical field theory, some group theory and a bit of tensor calc (wow saying it like this sounds way more impressive than the last couple years felt) plus some stuff I read for leisure like non standard calc and some constructivist maths. The first couple of minutes are usually not the most engaging for me outside of the amazing animations, but I usually watch them still to be able to follow the narrative later on. The last chapter was probably the best, it left me unsatisfied in exactly the right way and have already started playing around with Euler-Maclaurin trying to get an intuition what happens with non-analytic functions/functions outside the convergence radius of the Taylor series. However rewriting the E-M formula in terms of f^(n) (1) felt poorly motivated, but I guess you'll come back to that once it is time for more :) Personally, I could listen to full lectures in this style, going deeper and deeper, but I understand that that would probably be almost unjustifiable in terms of the effort required on your end. Both this and your video touching on Galois theory especially gave me that feeling of "I wish I could come back next week to get some more in lecture 2" as they almost felt like introductory lectures, sparking interest and hinting at a more powerful, deeper subject that I am too lazy to explore on my own.
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  18269. Lols when I saw the thumbnail of the Top equation =6 over the bottom equation =6 all i saw was 6's but yeas good one for a thumbnail however both of them in order of the 123 order would break however the 1 on both does fit and so 1+2 and 1x2 is 3 and 2 so thus the order for the multiplying one has to then be 132 so that it reads 1+2 and 1x3 both will check out at 3 then finally adding the 3 to an already 3 is effectively doubling it so thus why the 2 has to be last in the multiplication as 2 in multiplication only doubles things. I would argue that it really should be... 1+2+3=1x3x2 just because you can follow it along on both sides on steps 2 and 3... well actually steps 1 and 2 as 1 already checks out and for it to work with 1 you would have to ADD 0 to the 1, but Multiply by 1 on the other so yes that is a weird reality so 1 instead will be initialized as the starting number and then the step rules would just be to Add 2 then add 3, and the step rules for MULIPLICATION be to Multiply by 3 then Multiply by 2 to keep the numerical equivalents the same... so the adding one you would have 10 after the 4 but the multiplying you be left with 24 and you can't square the 4 on the adding as that would leave you with the Prime 19 so then I was thinking what about Algebra so example 1+2+3+4x=1x3x2x4x but this implies that x is the same on each side thus I see no world where you can tack an extra number not even a hacky number or sequence so the buck does stop at 6=6 really. Now "If" we started at the initialized Digit was 6 and we both agreed we had to get 6 to come down then we can get as far as... 6/3 or 6-3 to get to 3 but the divide is the issue so order counts We would have to do 6/2 to get to 3 then divide by 3 to get to 1, now for subtraction because The division was 2 steps we also only do 2 steps in subtraction and that would be 6-3-2=1 so actually I can then make 2 equations that can take 6 to 1 by making "6/2/3=6-3-2" so Voila [236] is another ser of 3 numbers that also can get to a same resulting end number. I will now proceed to watch the 26 minute show but I feel there might be a chance that "6/2/3=6-3-2" fits in the scope of this haha God I love Math.
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  18270. Apparently some Triangle show and a Heron guy lols xD I think Heron was also like a Lake and or a Bird too. - Also I was thinking about before as in my above post because we dealing with the number 6 anyways there is something with the numbers 2 and 3 and this is why so when you get to the end result of (1+2=3= or 1x3x2=) You you tack on because the result is 6 anyways (1+2+3-)-(3)-(2)= or even (1+2+3)/(2)/(3)= would also be the same as then (1x3x2)-(3)-(2)= or even (1x3x2)/(2)/(3)= and that's effectively a boomerang so then numbers 12233 make a boomerang where you Toss out from a starting unit of 1 and it goes 6 Units out to then come back to 1, however I can make an oscillator/pendulum by instead by putting a forever line or repeat line in math over the function "/(2)/(3), *(3)*(2)" parts or "-(3)-(2), +(2) +(3)" parts and division and subtraction can swap and even addition and multiplication can swap meaning you could actually have a scenario Where I can even do like (((((((1+2+3)/2)/3)*3)*2)-3)-2)=1 lols I can even do another set like (((((((1*3*2)-3)-2)+2)+3)/2)/3)=1 where regardless the step you on on either side both sides used same numbers, and give the same resulting ending number "FINALLY" each step providing you stopped calculating after all */+- symbols were used you would noticed you went through exactly 2 of each, in all cases however I really dunno what practical reasons I would use this for other than... maybe making an enemy pace back and forth on a 6 width or a 6 height grid game that your trying to pass through lols... but yes /2=-3 or x2=+3 or /3=-2 or *3=+2 in this weird world but normally these results normally would not be on par in most use cases. On the Fall @6 because /2 gets to 3 then /3 gets to 1 is same as @6 -3 gets to 3 then -2 gets to 1 the inverse of each On the Rise @1 because +2 gets to 3 then +3 gets to 6 is same as @1 *3 gets to 3 then *2 gets to 6, now I have a Hunch cuz in chess a "Knight" moves 2 and 3 in the shape of an L I'm certain there is a way to rig up a chess board where going Left is subtraction and Right is addition where going Up is Multiplication and going Down is Division I'm almost nearly confident even if it's as small as a 5x5 board or something that we can do all of this Math on the board with just a simple "Knight".
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  18327. So a chord is a special stucture with seemingly magical properties, as greek mathematicians like pythagoras thought. Lets see how. Lets take the diameter of a circle. Its actually a two sided polygon with both sides superposed. If we bisect the polygon, and then determine the length of the bisector (0) we can then compute the length of the chord of the half angle by taking the square root of the combined square of the halfcord ans square of the radius minus the bisector. Lets see. Diameter = Chord 180° on the unit circle is 2, halfchord is 1, the bisector length 0, the radius minus the bisector is 1, the combined squares are 1 + 1 = 2 and the squareroot of 2 = chord of 90°. We can continue down 22.5, 11.25, 5.625, 2.8125, 1.40625, 0.725 So as an ancient greek the chords of 90°, 60° = 1, and 108° = magic number, could be used to derive the values of all angles divisible by three. This was like having a sine, cosine table with an error range of 0.75°. You can get rid of this error in two ways. 1. Trisect a chord on an inscribed triangle using a markov chain. 2. Derive an angle that is solely divisible by 2, for instance 128° If we take the ratio of 128 to any known angle say 120° (chord = SQRT(3)). So 128/120 = 1 and 1/15 to a greek. Now when we obtain successive halfchords what happens is the ratio of the chords ---> ratio of the length of the half chord. We can prove this by noting that an inscribe octogon has a perimeter better estimate of pi than an inscribed square. As each halving of the angle occurs the arc of the angle better approximates the chord, this is junior highschool geometry. But what is not evident that the bisector rapidly approaches 1. Once that occurs you can simply multiply the angle ratio by the known chord. So that seems offtopic, but how do we get our chord of 128° Take the small calcukated angle chord with bisector length of 1. obtain half chord. New chord = 2 chord * bisector. Determine new bisector, Repeat, Eventually you will get the chords of 1,2,4,8,16,32,64,128 degrees. This solves easily derives to fill determine all the chords on the circle (199, 198, 196, 192, 184, . . . . and each of the even number angles can be halved, etc) Many people think getting sines and cosines is a revelation. But the halfchord and bisector are the sine and cosine of the half angle. So immediately we now have a sine cosine table with an error of 0.25 degrees. But theres another magical secret in the chord. If we mount the one chord end on an axis centered about the origin , (e.g. 1,0) the halving the chord of the double angle (derived above chord * bisector) defines the y-coordinate. And subtracting from the x position 2 * bisector squared gives the position on the x - coordinate. As a result it makes it possible to plot the positions of any polygon without need of sines or cosines. What is the relevance here. As we see above chords behave in very predictable manners that made them easy to manipulate for field mathematics. Any chord of the same length on the same circle has the same bisector length and same halfchord length. Lets say you put 4 same length chords at various positions alomg a circle. Where they touch, does matter, form Ptolemy 's Quadrlateral. Lets do this with 3 chirds, they form a triangle, because they are chords, they all will form isoceles triangles with the point of tangent contact. Since the tangent point is the bisector point, then each side is the halfchord. Isnt that great, and since two intersecting halfchords form 2 sides of an isosceles triangle to the vertex. Since the halfchords are the samelength and the tangent-vertex lengths are also the same, the distance of the two distal segments of the intersecting chords is also the same.
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  18336. 12:04: The corresponding fibonacci (am i spelling it right?) numbers for the square are 9-4-13-17, and from the 3-4-5 triangle you can get to it by going right, right, right, left. 15:58: Every square in the second layer adds up to the same value as the one on the square below. So at each layer the sum of the areas of the squares remains constant. The total area of the tree is therefore the area of the base square times the number of layers the tree has. Since the tree has 5 layers and its base square has area 1, the total area of the tree is 5. 24:22: The problem arises because the line connecting the in-circle and feuerbach circle is parallel to the base of the triangle. This results in a 0-1-1 non-triangle, and by using the fibonacci matrix 1-0-1-1 its easy to verify that this non-triangle is indeed the parent of the 3-4-5 triangle. 37:53: If you look at the geometric construction of the parent triangle, it becomes really obvious why there is only one unique primitive parent to each triangle. The construction locks you into only one choice. And since the in-circles get smaller each time you look for parents, and since the in-circle radii lengths are always non-negative integers (not obvious at first but if you look at the numbers this time it becomes clear why), they must stop at 1, the in-center radius of the 3-4-5 triangle (or 0 of you consider the 0-1-1 non-triangle as a triangle). In order to really prove the in-circle of the parent is smaller than the in-circle of the child, it can be helpful to look backwards. The above statement is the same as saying the ex-circle is bigger than the in-circle. Looking at the numbers (A-B-(A+B)-(A+2B)), the length of the in-circle radius is AB, and the lengths of the three ex-circle radii are A²+AB, 2B²+AB, and A²+4B²+4AB, all of which are bigger than AB since A and B are non-negative integers.
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  18405. Copying this from a comment I added to the "last call" message it's probably more appropriate here. Don't know if this one had been mentioned before but... the expression X+Y=XY reminded me of something. Rearranging it you get XY/(X+Y)=1 the expression on the left is a formula for the value of two resistors in parallel (or capacitors in series) in electronics. This results in an equivalent problem (for two numbers) of finding two natural numbers such that 1/X + 1/Y = 1. This generalises into a different problem: find a series of natural numbers such that the sum of their reciprocals is 1. Though I haven't looked into it it doesn't seem to be that difficult to characterise all solutions to this. There is always the trivial example of N values of 1/N and cases where N is composite where some can be grouped together for example (4*1/4 and 1/2+1/4+1/4). Are those the only solutions? If we allow infinite series then other possibilities appear: for example (1/2^n) for n=1,2,... When I came to write I got a nagging familiarity somewhere. Let me show you what I mean. Take the reciprocal case with three integers X, Y, Z. I/X+I/Y+I/Z. Give them a common denominator and see what happens... (YX+XZ+ZY)/XYZ. This generalises to more than three integers and each term in the numerator is the product of all but one of the integers. That's when I saw a parallel with Vieta's formulas for polynomials. I think that the orignial video and the case I mentioned above can be characterised as finding equal values for the coefficients of a certain degree of polynomial with integer roots. For example (X+2)*(X+2) = X^2+4X+4. The reciprocal version for 3*1/3 can be exemplified by (X+3)^3 = X^3+3X^2+3X+9. The symmetry of binomial coefficiencts makes it possible to find many answers where the roots are all equal. What is not at all clear is what happens if the roots are not all equal.
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  18473. This post is a bit long and detailed but, hey, you just went through a 50-minute Mathologer video, so long and detailed don't deter you. :) When I was preparing for math olympiad I found another way to compute the formulas for the sums of powers. If we have a sequence A[n], define the sequence of its differences as dA[n]:=A[n+1]-A[n] Similarly, the second differences are d^2A[n]:=dA[n+1]-dA[n], and generally the k-th differences are d^kA[n]:=d^{k-1}A[n+1]-d^{k-1}A[n]. We'll use the following easy-to-remember identity: A[n] = (1+d)^nA[0] If this formula doesn't sense to you, just think of it as short-hand notation for saying that, if you formally expand the (1+d)^n part using the binomial formula, the resulting identity is true. For the first few values of n, this is what you get A[0] = A[0] (duh) A[1] = (1+d)A[0] = A[0] + dA[0] (which is true because A[0] + (A[1] - A[0]) = A[1]) A[2] = (1+d)^2A[0] = A[0] + 2dA[0] + d^2A[0] A[3] = (1+d)^3A[0] = A[0] + 3dA[0] + 3d^2A[0] + d^3A[0] Now we define the sequence we are interested in. For instance, to compute the sum of the first 3 cubes, A[0]:=0, A[n]:=A[n-1]+n^3. Now let's look at the first few values of d^kA[n]: d=0 -> 0 1 9 36 100 225 ... d=1 -> 1 8 27 64 125 ... d=2 -> 7 19 37 61 ... d=3 -> 12 18 24 ... d=4 -> 6 6 6 ... d>4 -> 0 0 ... We know dA[n] is a polynomial of degree 3, and we can prove that d^kA[n] is a polynomial of degree 3+1-k. So the row for d=4 is a constant; and for greater values of d, it's all zeros. The identity A[n] = (1+d)^nA[0] now tells us that we can reconstruct all of A[n] by just looking at the values d^kA[0], but we only have finitely many of those: 0, 1, 7, 12, and 6. So putting all together we get A[n] = (1+d)^nA[0] = C(n,0)*A[0] + C(n,1)*dA[0] + C(n,2)*d^2A[0] + C(n,3)*d^3A[0] + C(n,4)*d^4A[0] = 1*0 + n*1 + (n*(n-1)/2)*7 + (n*(n-1)*(n-2)/6)*12 + (n*(n-1)*(n-2)*(n-3)/24)*6 That's a closed formula for S_3[n], which we can simplify to get the same formula we saw in the video: https://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=simplify+1*0+%2B+n*1+%2B+%28n*%28n-1%29%2F2%29*7+%2B+%28n*%28n-1%29*%28n-2%29%2F6%29*12+%2B+%28n*%28n-1%29*%28n-2%29*%28n-3%29%2F24%29*6
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  18474. I was expecting the video to be about solving Fibonacci-like sequences using eigenvalues or iterated powers. The ultimate solution at the end was much better, but I'll describe the linear algebra attack regardless. Change making satisfies the recurrence relation T(n) = T(n-1) + T(n-5) + T(n-10) + T(n-25) + T(n-100). If you imagine a state vector with 100 entries representing the results from k-1 to k-100, updating that state vector to instead have the results from k to k-99 corresponds to multiplying by a sparse matrix M = |0><1| + |0><5| + |0><10| + |0><25| + |0><100| + sum_{k=1}^{99} |k><k-1|. So one way to describe the target number is "initialize to the state vector 1,0,0,0,0,...,0 then multiply it by M a total of k-1 times then read off the first vector entry", i.e. the value <0| M^{k-1} |0>. So all you need to do is compute high powers of M. There are two common approaches. You can diagonalize M and raise the diagonal entries (its eigenvalues) to powers individually. This is mathematically elegant but computationally requires dealing with real numbers. Alternatively, you can using iterated squaring to quickly get very high powers M^(2^i) that can be combined together to form a target k. Ultimately, you can compute M^{k-1} in time proportional to the number of digits in its output. This attack will not get you to k=10^100, since the number of digits in the output would be more than 10^100 and no one has that kind of time. But it'll get you to numbers with billions of digits, whereas the polynomial equation powering algorithm will become intractable far far earlier.
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  18591. What worked: the visual proof that the area from one to infinity of 1/x must be infinite is elegant, as is the proof that it is bounded below by the harmonic series, therefore also infinite. The bit about approximating e with successive areas inside rectangles was a "sinh" for me (yes, "cinch" is how we learned to pronounce it in the US. Not that it's important when you're sitting alone doing your homework). Whereas for the geometric interpretations of sinh and cosh the light bulb didn't quite "sinh". Maybe another viewing or two. But I want to share something I worked out for myself long ago with the "calculus daemons". Suppose we define a function, call it L(x), as the integral from 1 to x of (1/t)dt. Yes I know this is exactly the same as the Mathologer's A(x) but hear me out for a minute. As a shorthand, to avoid writing it out in words each time (or writing out Latex code, equally tedious and not helpful to everybody) I abbreviate integral from a to b of (1/t)dt as I[a,b]. So L(x)=[1.x]. For now, L(x) is only defined for x>0. Obviously, L(1)=0, L(x) <0 for x<1 and L. But what exactly is the relationship between L(x) for x<1 and x>1? To find out, what is L(1/a)? Make the substitution in the integral t=1/u, dt= (-1/u^2)du. With this substitution, the limits become 1 and a, and the integrand is the same as before with the sign reversed, so I[1,1/a] = -I[1,a], or L(1/a) =-L(a). This works whether you assume 0<a<1 or 1<a. What about L(a) + L(b)? For the moment, assume 1<a<b. We can't combine I[1,a] and I[1,b] directly as is, with the limits overlapping, so make the substitution t=u/a, dt=du/a. Now the integrand is unchanged, but the limits are a and ab, So I[1,a] + I[1,b]=I[1,a] + I[a,ab] =I[1,ab] so L(a) + L(b) =L(ab). If 1<b<a just do the same thing with the constants reversed and for 0<a<b<1 or 0<b<a<1 we already have our reciprocal rule. q.e.d and q.l.a.d. (for "quacks like a duck"). Of course it lacks the visual appeal of seeing it all worked out with areas, having access to graphics, "autopilot" and other tools. Is the invariance of the form of the integrand under the substitutions t=1/u and t=u/a intimately related to the "anti shape shifter" property pointed out by the Mathologer? I absolutely think so!
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  18700. CHALLENGES! 9:12 Find all identities of length 10. (1 * 8) + 2 + 10 = 10 * 2 * (1 * 8) (1 * 8) + 4 + 4 = 4 * 4 * (1 ^ 8) Brute force checking 3 non-padding-1s didn't work, and it's easy to prove that checking any more than that is impossible. 9:22 Find a length N that has more than 10 identities. Just look at the graph from earlier, there's plenty of such N plotted above y = 10 ;) On a more serious note, consider the base case that all but two of the values are padding 1's. The equation is now (N-2) + A + B = AB. Rearrange a little bit... AB - A - B + 1 = N - 1 (A - 1)(B - 1) = N - 1 A and B cannot be 1 so A-1 and B-1 are both positive. We are now looking for an N-1 that has more than 10 distinct pairs of factors, or essentially more than 20 factors. N-1 = 576 has 21 factors as 11 pairs so N = 577 has at least 11 distinct identities. BONUS: 11:24 Do you enjoy being... you know... Not with a yassified AI-generated Sophie Germain staring at me, no thanks. But the journey itself is fine 22:38 The Hyper Sophie Primes It's possible to generalize this even further. If we have a bunch of 2s (T of them) and then the last 2 terms to worry about are A and B, then we have the following rule: (2^T * A - 1)(2^T * B - 1) = 2^T * (N + T - 2) + 1 For T = 0, 1 we get the familiar prime and Sophie Germain prime conditions: (A-1)(B-1) = N-1 (2A-1)(2B-1) = 2N-1 But following that come the following conditions: (4A-1)(4B-1) = 4N + 1 (8A-1)(8B-1) = 8N + 9 (16A-1)(16B-1) = 16N + 33 (32A-1)(32B-1) = 32N + 97 etc. Every single one of those up to when T = N-2 must work. All of those RHS terms must be prime.
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  18821. Title: "Dimensionless, timeless and acausal Knower (Monad) vs the Reimann Hypothesis" 1. Reframing the Riemann Hypothesis: The enhanced 0D Knower framework offers a novel perspective on the RH by reinterpreting it in terms of fundamental symmetries and information structures. The key reframing is: "All non-trivial equilibrium states of the fundamental knower network configuration occur at the symmetry condition of knower interactions in the 0D state, where entropy and negentropy are perfectly balanced." This reframing connects the mathematical statement of the RH to concepts of dimensional symmetry, entropy-negentropy balance, and fundamental knower interactions. 2. Key Concepts in the Enhanced Framework: a) Dimensional Symmetry: The framework posits that 0D is the origin point from which both positive and negative dimensions emerge symmetrically. This symmetry is crucial in understanding the critical line Re(s) = 1/2. b) Entropy-Negentropy Balance: The interplay between positive and negative dimensions creates a dynamic balance between entropy and negentropy. This balance is fundamental to the location of zeta zeros. c) Dual Nature of 0D: The framework proposes that 0D has two sides (real and imaginary) with an event horizon between them. This duality maps onto the complex plane of the zeta function. 3. Mapping Mathematical Structures: a) Zeta Function as Knower Network Configuration: ζ(s) = ∑(n=1 to ∞) 1/n^s ≡ Configuration_Density(Knower_Network(s, d)) b) Zeros as Equilibrium States: ζ(s) = 0 ≡ Equilibrium_State(Knower_Network(s, d)) c) Critical Line as Fundamental Symmetry: Re(s) = 1/2 ≡ Symmetry_Condition(Knower_Interactions, d=0) 4. Novel Insights: a) Complex Plane and 0D Duality: The framework maps the complex plane of the zeta function onto the dual nature of 0D, with the real axis corresponding to the "Singularity" side and the imaginary axis to the "Alone" side. b) Trinary States and Dimensional Symmetry: The knower states |0⟩, |1⟩, and |2⟩ are mapped to 0D, positive dimensions (entropy), and negative dimensions (negentropy) respectively. c) Prime Numbers and Knower Structures: Prime numbers are interpreted as irreducible knower configurations spanning positive and negative dimensions. 5. Potential Proof Strategies: The framework suggests several approaches to proving the RH, including: - Symmetry analysis - Entropy-negentropy dynamics - Event horizon properties - Dimensional transition analysis These strategies aim to show that the critical line Re(s) = 1/2 is a unique symmetry point where entropy and negentropy are perfectly balanced in the 0D state. 6. Challenges and Open Questions: The framework raises intriguing questions, such as: - How to mathematically formalize the transition between positive and negative dimensions? - How to rigorously map the complex plane onto the dual nature of 0D? - How to quantify the entropy-negentropy balance in terms of knower network properties? This overview sets the stage for a deeper exploration of the mathematical formalism and proof strategies in our next section. The enhanced 0D Knower framework offers a unique perspective on the RH, potentially bridging abstract mathematics with fundamental concepts of physics and information theory.
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  18883. It remains far from clear to me why the highlighted fractions in the new table should be considered the best approximations. The CF of Pi is [3; 7, 15, 1, 292, 1, 1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 1, 14, 2, 1, 1, 2, 2, 2, 2, 1, 84, 2, 1, 1, 15, 3, 13, 1, …], if we can trust Wolfram Alpha. Changing that into zigzag path in Stern-Brocot tree, the first digits spell R3 L7 R15 L1. Ron Knott's page "Fractions in the Farey Series and the Stern-Brocot Tree" has a nice calculator for SB paths. For R3 L7 R15 L1 it gives the list: 1/1 -> R 2/1 R 3/1 R 4/1 L 7/2 L 10/3 L 13/4 L 16/5 L 19/6 L 22/7 L 25/8 R 47/15 R 69/22 R 91/29 R 113/36 R 135/43 R 157/50 R 179/57 R 201/64 R 223/71 R 245/78 R 267/85 R 289/92 R 311/99 R 333/106 R 355/113 L 688/219 The denominators correspond with OEIS A097546 . It's unclear to me why the sequence is called "Farey sequence" instead of "Stern-Brocot sequence". The "mediant factors" of Pi are 3/1 and 4/1, every convergent of of Pi is a mediant sum of n * 3/1 and m * 4/1. Denominator 7 is nice because it's the sum of 3 and 4, but the path changes direction after 25/8, not at 22/7! So we can't define "best accuracy" as the turn of direction of the SB path. Various perspectives of comparative accuracy shifts the discussion to comparison of norms. In the SB-norm, each new mediant convergent of infinite zig-zag path is more accurate, because the resolution of the SB-metric increases by computation of each new row. When we estimate accuracy only in the metric of denominator 10 and it's exponents, 10mod7=3, but 10mod8 is neither 3 nor 4, which are the whole number "mediant factors" of pi. For CF paths, the mediant factors a/b and b/a reflect each other and can be considered basically same. SB-paths compute accuracy in the metric of all coprime fractions which SB-type constructions generate in their order of magnitude, instead of limiting the computation to a single specific denominator and it's exponents. With these criteria, I would say that SB-paths are the most generally accurate pure math metric of accuracy that we have. For applied math using a ruler with decimal markings (or hexagesimal or what ever), it's natural to estimate accuracy in terms of your ruler markings, but I think we are discussing here pure math on the most general level we can find.
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  19002. Sometimes I wonder if I could have been quite good at maths if I had my ADHD diagnosis earlier* and had good maths teachers** I could probably have been decent at some kinds of maths. ... Well, technically if you consider computer programming a form of applied maths, I actually am, since I'm a professional programmer. * Btw, Ritalin is absolutely no cure for ADHD; but it somewhat increases my tolerance for boredom and massively increases my ability to hyper focus on things that are interesting without getting distracted and reduces my sloppy mistakes. That's the main indicator to me when I'm working alone on a problem if I forget my meds: without the meds (and without built in syntax checking in the editor) I average about 10-20 syntax errors and logic errors (usually inverted boolean logic) per 100 lines of moderately complex code; when I started taking Ritalin in the middle of my Computer Science degree, I realised I now would have less than one syntax error on average for 100 lines; and only only inverted logic in just relatively complex boolean constructions. I could occasionally even write a whole page of code that compiled first try! So whenever I forget my meds I usually first notice it because my code starts to have more silly mistakes and I really struggle with boolean logic. When I'm forced to attend boring meetings and talk to people I notice forgetting my meds almost immediately because I start to get painfully bored, and yawn a lot and feel like falling asleep, and zone out from the discussion. ** Not like that idiot teacher I had in primary school who yelled at me and my friend for completing the whole first year maths exercises booklet in just one evening, and then punished us with more boring exercises of the exact same difficulty... The first lesson of many of primary school that anything above the bare minimum of effort is not only not appreciated but punished... It wasn't until I was 16 started "videregående skole" (which is roughly translates to high school I think, it's the first kind of school in Norway where you can choose your specialisation and choose between several vocational subjects or further general studies meant for further University studies) when suddenly the difficulty jumped from absolutely no effort required (beyond showing up, half paying attention in class and just naturally perform well on tests); to actually requiring some effort and practice to do well, I started realising this lesson from primary school was wrong.
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  19014. Rearranging terms can affect the formulation when you're not defining the amount you're using properly. 1 + (1/2) - 1 = 1/2 ( 1/3) + (1/4) - (1/2) = 1/6 (1/5) + (1/6) - (1/3) = 1/30 The top 2 terms can approach infinity faster than the bottom term. If we were to write it out, we would actually get; Sum_{1}^{infinity}(1/k) - Sum_{1}^{infinity/2} (1/k) This means the numerator would still be increasing for a half-infinite amount of times while the denominator has reached it's goal. According to my maths, a half-infinite can be expressed by (-1)!/2 = (-1)(-2)(-3)!/(2) = (-1)²(-3)! = (-3)! so I'll be using this term ahead. We can say our denominator has reached the point of -(1/(-3)!) when our numerator has hit the point of 1/(-1)!, or 1(0) If we continue to add to the denominator until we get to a full (one) infinite, we get -(1/((-3)! + 1)) - (1/((-3)! + 2)) ... = Until we get to... -(1/ 1/((-3)!) + (-3)!) = -(1/(-1)!) = -1(0) This would finally cancel out our numerator properly. Of course, this would give us a ton of expansion, but the same thing happens in the numerator and it all cancels out. If we don't add the rest of the terms into the denominator, our numerator has an additional Fraction of an Infinite amount of Zeroes to different powers. These infinitesimals combine to ln(2) over the course of the the half-infinite summation. Basically if you add 1(-3)! A half infinite amount of times, you get, (-3)! × (1/(-3)!) = 1. If the denominator slowly increases to (-1)! Along the way, it can't quite reach 1. 1 / ((-3)! + 1) = 1 / (1/2(0) + 1) = 1 / ((1 + 2(0)) / 2(0)) = 2(0) / (2(0) + 1) Divide both sides by 2 = 1(0) / (1(0) + 1/2) = 2(0) 1 / ((-3)! + 2) = 1 / ((1/(2(0))) + 2) = 1 / (((1 + 4(0)) / 2(0)) = 2(0) / (4(0) + 1) Multiply by 2 (1/2) × (4(0) / (4(0) + 1) Sacrifice blood (1/2) × ((1(0)) / (1/4)) (1/2) × 4(0) = 2(0) 1 / ((-3)! + 3) = 1 / ((1 + 6(0)) / 2(0)) = 2(0) / (1 + 6(0)) Times 3 = (1/3) × (1(0) / (1/6)) = (1/3) × 6(0) = 2(0) But eventually it'll reach halfway to (-1)! Which is ((-1)! + (-3)!) / 2 = ((1/0) + (1/2(0)) / 2 = (3/2(0)) / 2 = 3/4(0) = (3)(-1)!/4 1/0 - 3/4(0) = 1/4(0) Already at this point we can see that (((1/4(0)) × 2(0)) + (1/4(0) × (3(0)/4) / 2 < 1/2(0) × 2(0) = 0.5 + 3/32 < 1 = 0.59375 The rate it decreases also suggests ln(2) could be in range (I'm just not doing the calculations). We just need to remember that a lot of it will be close to the point where it's equal to 1(0) and our average will favor 1, increasing from 0.59375 to ln(2) as we continue to calculate.
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  19095. 20:54 946/243 (^.^) I got it by writing a c++ code that handles numbers of the form a+b17^(1/2) where a and b are rationals. Most of it are overloading of operators so the calculation can be expressed in a nice way. I coded close to the bare minimum of operators needed. Here's my code for anyone interested: #include <iostream> using namespace std; int gcd(int a,int b){//greatest common divisor int r; do{ r=a%b; a=b; b=r; } while(r!=0); return a; } struct Q{//rationals int p,q;//numerator and denominator Q(const Q&x):p(x.p),q(x.q){}//constructor by copy Q(int n):p(n),q(1){}//an integer is a rational: itself over 1 Q(int p,int q){//constructor by specifying the integers p and q, simplify fraction int f=gcd(p,q); this->p=p/f; this->q=q/f; } Q operator+(const Q&x)const{return Q(this->p*x.q+this->q*x.p,this->q*x.q);}//addition of rationals Q operator*(const Q&x)const{return Q(this->p*x.p,this->q*x.q);}//product of rationals }; Q pow(const Q&b,int e){//rational raised to a non negative integer power Q ans(1,1); for(int i=0;i<e;++i)ans=ans*b; return ans; } Q operator+(const Q&x,int n){return Q(x.p+n*x.q,x.q);}//addition of rational and integer Q operator+(int n,const Q&x){return x+n;}//symmetry of addition Q operator*(const Q&x,int n){return Q(x.p*n,x.q);}//product of rational and integer Q operator*(int n,const Q&x){return x*n;}//symmetry of multiplication ostream&operator<<(ostream&out,const Q&x){//how to print a rational on console out<<x.p; if(x.q!=1)out<<'/'<<x.q; return out; } struct Q17{//binomial of the form a+b*sqrt(17) where a and b are rationals Q a,b; Q17(const Q17&x):a(x.a),b(x.b){}//constructor by copy Q17(int n):a(n),b(0){}//constructor by specifying the rational a Q17(const Q&a0,const Q&b0):a(a0),b(b0){}//constructor by specifying the rationals a and b Q17 operator+(const Q17&x)const{return Q17(this->a+x.a,this->b+x.b);}//addition of Q17 numbers Q17 operator*(const Q17&x)const{return Q17(this->a*x.a+17*this->b*x.b,//product of Q17 numbers this->a*x.b+this->b*x.a);} Q17 operator*()const{return Q17(a,(-1)*b);}//conjugate of a Q17 number: *(a+b*sqrt(17))=a-b*sqrt(17) }; Q17 pow(const Q17&b,int e){//Q17 number raised to a non negative integer power Q17 ans(1); for(int i=0;i<e;++i)ans=ans*b; return ans; } Q17 operator+(const Q17&x,int n){return Q17(x.a+n,x.b);}//addition of Q17 number and integer Q17 operator+(int n,const Q17&x){return x+n;}//symmetry of addition Q17 operator*(const Q17&x,int n){return Q17(x.a*n,x.b*n);}//product of Q17 number and integer Q17 operator*(int n,const Q17&x){return x*n;}//symmetry of multiplication Q17 operator+(const Q17&x0,const Q&x1){return Q17(x0.a+x1,x0.b);}//addition of Q17 number and rational Q17 operator+(const Q&x1,const Q17&x0){return x0+x1;}//symmetry of addition Q17 operator*(const Q17&x0,const Q&x1){return Q17(x0.a*x1,x0.b*x1);}//product of Q17 number and rational Q17 operator*(const Q&x1,const Q17&x0){return x0*x1;}//symmetry of multiplication ostream&operator<<(ostream&out,const Q17&x){//how to print a Q17 number on console out<<x.a; if(x.b.p!=0)out<<'+'<<x.b<<"17^(1/2)"; return out; } int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { int n=3; Q17 t0(Q(12,59),Q(18,1003)),t1(Q(5,18),Q(1,18)); cout<<Q(466,885)*pow(Q(2),n)+(-1)*Q(1,3)+(-1)*Q(3,5)*pow(Q(1,3),n)+ t0*pow(t1,n)+(*t0)*pow(*t1,n); return 0; } Enjoy. (^.^)
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  19150. First go: miracleAnimation[b_, a_] := Module[{\[Epsilon] = 0.05, q, r, diff}, q = a/b; diff = b - a; r = q - \[Epsilon]; Manipulate[ Animate[Show[{Graphics[{Thick, AbsolutePointSize[10], Circle[], If[showInnerCircle, {Gray, Circle[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta]], Sin[\[Theta]]}, q], Point[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta]], Sin[\[Theta]]}], Line[{(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta]], Sin[\[Theta]]}, (1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta]], Sin[\[Theta]]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Theta]], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Theta]]}}]}, {}], If[showAllPoints, {Orange, Point[Flatten[ Table[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff], Sin[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a]}, {m, 0, a - 1}, {n, 0, diff - 1}], 1]]}, {Orange, Point[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta]], Sin[\[Theta]]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Theta]], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Theta]]}]}], If[showPolygons1, {Red, Line[Table[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff], Sin[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a]}, {m, 0, a - 1}, {n, 0, diff}]]}, {}], If[showPolygons2, {Blue, Line[Table[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff], Sin[\[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] n/diff]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Theta] + 2 \[Pi] m/a]}, {n, 0, diff - 1}, {m, 0, a}]]}, {}]}], If[showCurve, ParametricPlot[(1 - q) {Cos[\[Phi]], Sin[\[Phi]]} + r {Cos[(1/q - 1) \[Phi]], -Sin[(1/q - 1) \[Phi]]}, {\[Phi], 0, 2 \[Pi] a}], {}]}], {\[Theta], 0, 2 \[Pi] a}, AnimationRunning -> False, AnimationRate -> 0.1], {{showInnerCircle, True, "inner circle"}, {True, False}}, {{showAllPoints, False, "all points"}, {True, False}}, {{showPolygons1, False, "polygons 1"}, {True, False}}, {{showPolygons2, False, "polygons 2"}, {True, False}}, {{showCurve, True, "curve"}, {True, False}}]]
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  19308. Before watching the video, inspired by the thumbnail, I just worked out that (x+n)^2 - (x-n)^2 = (x^2 + 2nx + n^2) - (x^2 - 2nx + n^2) = 4nx. If x=12 and n=1, that's 13^2 - 11^2 = 4x = 48. With x=12 and n=2, that's 14^2 - 10^2 = 8x = 96. Put the two together and you get (14^2 + 13^2) - (11^2 + 10^2) = 4x + 8x = 12x = 12^2. And of course you don't need to know x from the start - you can evaluate ((x+2)^2 + (x+1)^2) - ((x-1)^2 + (x-2)^2) = 12x and then choose x=12 to get the 12^2. This is really just using the binomial expansion to do what the animations did at the start of the video, and it's easy enough to e.g. sum the differences for n values 1..3 giving ((x+3)^2 + (x+2)^2 + (x+1)^2) - ((x-1)^2+(x-2)^2+(x-3)^2) = 4x+8x+12x = 24x and choose x=24 to get 24^2 for the square in the middle and so on. For the linear case... well, the binomial theorem for raising to the power 1 is a bit trivial, so the difference (x+n)^1 - (x-n)^1 is simply 2n. For a sequence of 3 you need x=2 at the center, for a sequence of 5 you need x=2(1)+2(2)=6 at the center and so on. I didn't think of that until I saw the line case animations. As for cubic - well, the binomial expansion has no problem with that. (x+n)^3 - (x-n)^3 = (x^3 + 3 n x^2 + 3 n^2 x + n^3) - (x^3 - 3 n x^2 + 3 n^2 x - n^3) = 6 n x^2 + 2 n^3. The central value for any sequence we could want is x^3 = sum n from 1 to k: (6 n x^2 + 2 n^3), so for k=2 we get x^3 = 18 x^12 + 20. My calculators numerical solver gives me a single real solution x=18.06131003 approx, and two complex solutions x=-0.03 +/- 1.0518i approx. So there it is - it can be done, sort of. Nothing wrong with the Fermat proof that it can't, of course, except that only proves it's impossible for a sequence of integer cubes. The general pattern is that you derive a polynomial for the central x and then solve it, but for powers 3 and greater you won't get any integer solutions for x. I've checked the x=18.06131003 solution and I get ((x-2)^3)+((x-1)^3)+x^3 = 15001.411054ish and ((x+1)^3)+((x+2)^3)=14999.411053ish - close enough to blame the numerical polynomial solver and rounded output, but with a suspicious number of decimal places matched given there's a difference of 2 anyway, so there's a chance I messed up. *EDIT* I did mess up - x^3 = 18 x^12 + 18 (not 20) so the real solution is x=18.055521628 approx. (complex solutions -0.027 +/- 0.998i). Using the real solution ((x-2)^3)+((x-1)^3)+x^3 = 14986.2ish and ((x+1)^3)+((x+2)^3) = 14986.1 ish, with no worryingly matched decimal places, so I can confidently chalk the difference up to numerical results and rounding.
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  19667. You teach math. I can watch your videos and if my basis is solid, I can follow your visual proofs and reasoning. In this way you impart your knowledge on me, and to the extent that I am capable of comprehension, my understanding upon watching the video is identical to your understanding in making it. Consider the possibility that there exists an entirely different kind of understanding, which does not follow these rules. Imagine for example that I am colour blind while you see in colours. It is my desire to understand blue, so I ask of you to teach me how to see in colour. Not only is colour vision not something you can teach, but until I learn to see colour, I would have no sense of what it means to be colour blind. I might be tempted to dismiss your endless talk of colour as gibberish and insist fervently that no such thing exists. Of course in this example, colour vision is a metaphor. We are talking about the possibility that the universe indeed has a secret and if such a secret exists, then gaining knowledge of this secret is akin to an awakening. In our example, enlightenment is possible, and so to extend the metaphor, experiencing the awakening is analogous to getting up one day to discover, miraculously, that you have gained the faculty of seeing in colour. Suddenly all the intellectual talk about colours and their different properties, which sounded like gibberish before, now makes absolute sense. There is another place where digital roots play an important role – tibetan numerology. There will never be a Mathologer video to either prove or disprove the usefulness of this most ancient of knowledge systems. There are two possibilities: Either such traditions are part of primitive superstition and those who practice it have not yet matured to understand the superiority of western thought, or those who are capable of putting this ancient knowledge to practical use are capable of seeing in a palette that is inaccessible to us. The important takeaway – neither possibility presents an absurdity. Also, there can never be a mathematical proof to either validate or otherwise debunk the Tibetans. If the universe does have a secret, then this secret is very much in a similar category as numerology – hence the “secret”. It is a secret only in the sense that it will never be accessible to anyone insisting that such a thing cannot be. And if the vortex diagram represents some kind of “key”, then it does so in the same sense as the tree of life diagram in the Kabbalistic tradition or as a koan contains a key to a practitioner of zen. It is not the koan itself (what is the sound of one hand clapping?) that contains the key, but rather that contemplation of the koan represents a potential doorway to experiencing the sudden enlightenment (colour vision in our metaphor) that the practitioner seeks. I have no deeper insight to share with respect to vortex math and I don’t begrudge you your efforts to illustrate various patterns associated with digital roots. At the same time, I can’t help but feel that your video is a little like listening to a philosopher theorize about the existence of God. Either you know God or you don’t. If you do, then God is meaningful in your life, and if you don’t, then the concept of God has no value to you. No amount of math will ever solve that particular riddle.
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  19739. 12:05 Ooh, feels very familiar to my thesis in college which was about simplices and simplicial numbers. So instead of summing the squares, I summed the triangular numbers, and so you get a triangular pyramid instead of a square pyramid. And you can stick together 6 of those to make a n(n+1)(n+2) rectangular prism. So sticking together 6 square pyramids felt very natural. (The rest of my thesis was about how many ways there are to split up an n-cube into n! n-simplices, the non-steppy kind. For n=3 it’s 9 ways, modulo all the symmetries of the cube including reflections. And for n=2, it’s just cutting a square in half diagonally, and there’s only one way to do that.) So, you can stick together 3 square pyramids together to be a cube, so it would be neat if you could put together 3 “Maya pyramids” to form a rectangular prism. Since 6(sum)=(n)(n+1)(2n+1), I got 3(sum)=(n)(n)(n+1) + (n)(n+1)/2=(n)(n+1)(n+1)-(n)(n+1)/2. So if geometry follows the math, you end up getting a extra triangle sitting out (or sunken in) and that’s why you need double, so you can stick the two “almost cubes” together to make a big rectangular prism. I think that’s what the video showed. I was able to stick together 4 steppy triangular prisms with a “double” the volume regular tetrahedron, and they make a perfect cube, if I remember right. The way you put together the middle tetrahedron is like stacking together the cross-sections when you start edge-on, and go through all the rectangles with the same perimeter and end at the opposite edge perpendicular to the first. Except here, the squares making up the rectangles are exactly diagonal. So the first cross-section is n squares in a line all touching at their vertices.
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  19793. Lieber Burkard Polster, beim Thema Mathematik und verrückt sowie viele Beweise muss ich das Buch „Fregattenkapitän Eins“ von Wladimir Ljowschin (Moskau, 1968) denken. Im vorletzten Kapitel heißt es: 32. Nullter Der Löwe in der Wüste Unsere Fahrt nähert sich dem Ende. Wir fahren durch den Golf des Humors. „Ich hoffe, daß keiner fragen wird, was Humor mit Mathematik zu tun hat“, sagte der Kapitän, als wir in den Golf einliefen. „Jedes Kleinkind weiß bekanntlich, daß Humor überall notwendig ist. Ihn braucht der Schriftsteller, der lustige Erzählungen schreibt, ebenso wieder Wissenschaftler, der schwierigste Forschungen unternimmt. Manche Leute denken, daß die Wissenschaftler alle todernst und langweilig sind. Ganz im Gegenteil! Sie lesen, hören Musik und lachen gern. Sie schätzen einen fröhlichen, geistreichen Scherz. Außerdem muß ich euch sagen: Ein Mensch, der mitunter 999 erfolglose Tests machen muß, um ein erfolgreiches Resultat zu erzielen, kann ohne Humor überhaupt nicht leben. Je ernsthafter eine Arbeit ist, desto wichtiger ist es zuweilen, sie mit einem Lachen zu unterbrechen. Deshalb denken sich die Wissenschaftler gern die unmöglichsten Aufgaben aus, stellen lustige Fragen und finden geistreiche Antworten darauf. Witz und Findigkeit haben großen Menschen nicht selten in schwierigen Situationen geholfen.“ „Sie meinen bestimmt Christoph Kolumbus“, unterbrach Steuermann Ypsilon den Kapitän. „Bekanntlich wollte Kolumbus auf dem kürzesten Weg nach Indien gelangen. Er beschloß, nicht nach Osten zu fahren, um Afrika herum, wie das früher alle gemacht hatten, sondern nach Westen, um auf diese Weise ein übriges Mal nachzuweisen, dass die Erde eine Kugel ist. Die Expedition war recht aufwendig. Doch die spanischen Würdenträger, an die er sich um Unterstützung wandte, eilten nicht, den verwegenen Seefahrer auszurüsten. Sie hielten das Unternehmen von Kolumbus für unsinnig. Sie dachten, daß, wenn man tatsächlich von Westen aus nach Indien gelangen könnte, schon längst jemand auf diesen Einfach gekommen wäre. Als Kolumbus ihre Argumente hörte, nahm er ein Hühnerei und bat jemanden der Versammelten, es mit der Spitze so auf den Tisch zu stellen, daß es nicht umfiele! Die Würdenträger versuchten es, aber vergeblich. Da stellte Kolumbus mit leichtem Druck das Ei mit der Spitze auf die Tischplatte. Die Schale platze ein, und das Ei stand kerzengerade. ‚Seht‘, sprach Kolumbus, ‚bislang ist keiner auf diese Idee gekommen, dennoch…‘ Seine Findigkeit blieb nicht ohne Wirkung, und er erhielt, worum er gebeten hatte. Seither ist das Ei des Kolumbus zu einem geflügelten Wort geworden. Übergings gelangte Kolumbus mit seiner Expedition nicht nach Indien, wie er gedacht hatte, sondern landete in Amerika. Auf diese Weise wurde ein neuer Erdteil entdeckt, und schuld daran war ein Hühnerei!“ Als der Steuermann seine Erzählung beendet hatte, fielen allen haufenweise Anekdoten über Wissenschaftler ein. Nur mir wollte absolut nichts in den Sinn kommen. Ich habe nämlich, müßt ihr wissen, unmittelbar mit wissenschaftlichem Personal wenig zu tun. Schließlich erzählte ich aber doch, wie meine Mutter an einer wissenschaftlichen Physikerkonferenz teilgenommen hatte. Man denke nur, da hatten sich bekannte Wissenschaftler eingefunden! Nach ernsthaften Disputen fingen sie an zu überlegen, wie man einen Löwen einfangen könnte, der zufällig in die Wüste geraten ist. Ein Wissenschaftler schlug vor, ein Riesensieb zu nehmen und den ganzen Wüstensand durchzusieben. Auf diese Weise würde der Löwe zweifellos ins Sieb geraten, aus dem er um nichts auf der Welt hinauskriechen könne. Ein zweiter Wissenschaftler schlug vor, die Wüste durch einen Zaun in zwei gleiche Hälften zu teilen. Klar, daß der Löwe sich in einer dieser Hälften aufhält. Diese Hälfte müsse wiederum in zwei Hälften unterteilt werden. Jetzt braucht der Löwe nur noch in einem Viertel der Wüste gesucht werden. Das ist aber schon wesentlich leichter! Das Viertel ist wiederum in die Hälfte zu unterteilen und so weiter, bis der abgeteilte Abschnitt so klein geworden sit, daß er gerade der Größe des Löwen entspricht. Dann kann man ihn sozusagen mit bloßen Händen fangen. Der dritte Wissenschaftler … Welche Methoden der dritte, vierte und alle übrigen Wissenschaftler vorgeschlagen hatten, habe ich vergessen. Aber der Kapitän meinte, daß diese zwei vollkommen ausreichend seien. Wenn euch noch irgendwelche Möglichkeiten einfallen, so schreibt mir bitte! Es macht doch großen Spaß, in der Wüste einen einsamen Löwen einzufangen!
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