Comments by "Regis" (@Timbo5000) on "TIKhistory"
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@StephenButlerOne That's all well and good when we're talking about opinions, but TIK has made some real errors. For example, his definition of socialism is completely wrong and essentially comes down to "big government/collectivism", which in turn causes him to group fascism and marxist socialism as one and the same thing. But a closer inspection of those ideologies, as well as their history, would unearth some significant differences that explain why despite their similarities on the surface they still heavily opposed one another. For example, the proletariat (abolishing class) versus class collaboration (solidifying class, but having all classes work together in the interest of the nation/race), egalitarianism versus solidification of hierarchies, collectivising around the working class versus around the nation. TIK misses all of this and wrongly categorises these different ideologies as belonging to the same family. In truth, it's much more accurate to see Fascism (incl. NS), Socialism and Capitalism as three separate ideologies that all oppose one another. That's also in line with what Fascists said about themselves; they called themselves the third option besides capitalism and communism.
This is a huge error that has a large impact on all his political/economic videos. All because he gets one definition wrong. Mostly he is still correct, however, so it's not like the entire videos are wrong. It's just that he uses the wrong terms for many things. All because of just one mistake that seeps into the rest of his videos. Fascism and Socialism are both collectivist ideologies with heavy government involvement in the economy, but similarities end there. I hope TIK revises this.
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You're missing a lot here. The corporation gets its fair share for what it offers society, but how that corporation distributes this profit internally is not necessarily fair at all. If you're self-employed, what you earn is exactly what your fair share is. If you're employed with a corporation, your boss decides what your share is and how much of the profit goes directly into his own and/or shareholders' pockets. And most of the time an extreme amount of money is taken away from the corporation and placed in only a few private pockets, leaving workers in the dust. Workers, insofar their employed, do not get paid for what they contribute to society. Money always seems to concentrate at the top. Not because it's fair, but because that is what naturally happens in any competitive system; in the end the top amasses all of the resources unless there's a counterbalance. It's perfectly natural that the rich have the resources to become even richer, and this process repeats itself until the vast majority of wealth is located at the top. For example, being able to buy a few apartments to rent out is essentially free money if you can temporarily miss the first investment and wait for it to pay back. That money can in turn be used to start various businesses, the money from that can be used to invest elsewhere or expand, etc. etc. Simply having resources means you will naturally allocate a lot more in the long run, because there are so many opportunities open for you to make more money. In the end, this means the rich get ever richer and those without resources stay behind. The natural end game is that most wealth is right there at the top. But do we want this?
It's difficult to say what exactly is "fair", as there are many actors within a corporation that all deserve a share, from the workers up to the managers up to CEOs and shareholders. How do we measure the "value" of their contribution? Is having money and lending it to someone else a lazy contribution because it requires no effort, or is it a huge contribution because without it the corporation'd be nowhere? Is working a 40 hour week to produce goods an unimportant contribution because workers are interchangeable and provide unskilled labour, or is it a large contribution because they spend the most labour-intensive contribution to the corporation and produce the goods that lay at the centre of what that corporation does? There is no such thing as deciding exactly what is everybody's "fair share". The only certainty is that the corporation at large gets exactly the amount of money that consumers want to exchange with it, and therefore gets its fair share from what it contributed to society. How that share is divided within the corporation should at least be generally proportional. If 75% goes to a few higher ups and, 10% is spent on costs and 15% is left for employees, I don't think that's fair. Yet that is the current reality. I don't see how anybody's fair share can be 50 billion dollars or something crazy like that.
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TIK, your definition of socialism is deeply flawed. There is authoritarian socialism, which you seem to focus on in the video, but also libertarian socialism. You even mentioned Bakunin's (a libertarian socialist) criticism on totalitarianism, call him a socialist (true) and then turn around and say that socialism = totalitarianism. You do this at 5:07. This is an internal inconsistency in your argument that requires your attention. You can't both acknowledge Bakunin's heavy criticism of the state and at the same time say that his ideology is for totalitarianism. He was a socialist and anarchist. Authoritarian socialism = totalitarianism. Libertarian socialism is entirely different and highly critical of big governments (or even critical of the government existing at all, if you look at leftist anarchism).
This is not only an issue in this video (though this example is probably the most blatant internal inconsistency in your view of socialism), but across the board I notice that libertarian socialism is a blindspot of yours. Please look into this issue and adjust your definition of socialism accordingly. As it is now, it ignores the existence of libertarian socialism, which is a problem.
I think you should think about how libertarian socialism and leftist anarchism fits into your views of public vs private and capitalism. There's a gap in your logic here. You claim that democratic socialists believed the "lie" of Marx (which is fair enough to say about authoritarian socialism and its use of gradual change to eventually usher in a revolution), but this is completely false for libertarian socialism. You know very well that libertarian socialist and leftist anarchist factions have historically fought authoritarian socialists and are against the state as much as capitalists are (hell, in many cases even more against the state than capitalists generally are).
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@mniskin You speak of an idyllic situation in which the owners of land are also the ones working the land. In that hypothetical situation I would agree with you. However, I am speaking of a situation in which there are landowners who themselves do nothing, but use their ownership rights over the land to employ others to actually work it for them. In theory they could even purchase land, leave it completely unused and forcibly remove anyone that wishes to use the land from it due to their ownership rights.
I don't care how these owners became the owner. Whether a feudal king bought all the land he rules over or took it by force, feudalism inherently is a system of coercion. Therefore what matters is how owners can and will employ their ownership rights to dictate to others how they can acquire their needs. In ancapistan it is theoretically possible and permitted to buy up vast swathes of land and to literally implement feudalism there. And if theoretically almost all land is owned in this manner, and you only get to choose who your feudal lord is, you can impossibly escape this coercion.
Any system which allows this cannot claim to not be coercive. Ancap allows coercion by private actors and even backs this up by force (enforcement of ownership rights).
That is why I say that only a system in which ownership rights do not exist can be non-coercive. If it is legal for anyone to start using unused land, and illegal for anyone to forcibly take over land that is currently being used by another, only then is there no coercion. Only then is every land "owner" also the producer of food. Only then can you claim that in all cases, you either produce food yourself or you must exchange something to an individual who themselves laboured to produce the food. Only that is voluntary.
Capitalism cannot exist without coercion because ownership rights inherently require coercion to enforce them. If I own a house but leave it empty and live elsewhere, squatters have to be forcibly removed and denied access to that home in order to protect my ownership rights. It does not matter whether the state or a private actor enacts this violence towards the squatter. The point is it requires (a threat of) violence, always. So ancap cannot claim to be non coercive. Any system with ownership rights cannot claim such. Or perhaps a system in which ownership rights only exist as long as you actually use the good you own, and expire after a set period of not using it. F.e. I can leave a house empty for a year before my ownership rights expire and the house becomes res nullius.
By the way: I want to clarify that a mistake many make is thinking that capitalism = free market. No. Capitalism is only one specific TYPE of free market, which places emphasis on ownership rights and thereby enables use of capital to acquire ownership over anything and passively generate income. There are many ways to organise a free market because yes, even free market functions based on rules. And choices can be made in regards to those rules.
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@iustinianconstantinescu5498 Socialism is the working class seizing the means of production. Not "gubberment does stuff, the more stuff they do the socialismer it is". And I know this will blow your mind but what if I told you that free market socialism exists? It's a system in which workers control the company they work at, but those worker-controlled companies still compete with eachother on a free market. Yes, that is socialism too. Or how about anarcho-communism, which literally doesn't have a government and has as its only principle to abolish all oppressive relations (like upper class vs lower class)? They all have one thing in common: the workers seize the means of production. This has nothing to do with private vs public. If I work for myself, I as a worker have control over the means of production in my own company. Technically I'm then conforming to socialist principles since I own my own labour. If we have capitalism and change literally nothing except that workers must have control over their companies (by for example voting on subjects where normally the CEO would make a unilateral decision), that is already socialism despite there still being a free market. The government/public sector CAN take a role in socialism (you see this with authoritarian socialism like the USSR), but doesn't have to.
Public means that society collectively owns something, which is not the same as the working class owning something. For example, if the government (representing society as a whole) takes control of something that is public. But if a company decides that its workers (not society as a whole, JUST the workers in said company) collectively own the company and control it themselves, that is still PRIVATE OWNERSHIP. The workers then own their company privately (like how shareholders can own a company privately in capitalism. That it's a group of shareholders owning a company does not make it public), yet at the same time that is in fact socialism because the workers own the means of production. The only principle of socialism is that everyone should own their own labour. This can be achieved through both public and private means. Socialism can be achieved by centralised public control of everything (USSR), but it can also be achieved by having all companies privately owned by those that work there (in this case, everyone owns their own labour and thus, it is socialism).
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No.... collectivisation is not just any group owning the means of production, it is a huge group owning the entire means of production of a country. You can't compare the proletariat or the German race to bloody shareholders controlling a company together because "hurr durr both are groups". The shareholders are seen as the bourgeoisie under these systems. Under socialism there is collective ownership of the means of production and EVERYONE, from the owners/managers of the factories to the workers, has a share in it. Essentially it means the means of production are no longer used in the interest of generating profit for individuals (something both Marxism and NatSoc hated), but are from then on used in the interest of the working class or the German race as a whole.
Shareholders employ the means of production for themselves, to generate profit, that is not socialism. Collectivised factories in the USSR are used to benefit the working class as a whole (both the managers and the workers), in Nazi Germany they were used to the benefit of the German race (both the owners and the workers), in fascism they were used to the benefit of the nation (both the owners and the workers). In all three systems, the government created policies directing how the means of production would be used and what all the wages would be, etc. The government decided what was in the interest of the working class/race/nation and the corporations followed that.
In theory you can even have a fully planned economy, but if the government still employs the means of production to generate profit and not to collectivise the means of production for a class or race or whatever, it is still capitalism. Socialism is not "government does stuff" or "groups do stuff", it is about collectivisation and the eradication of the capitalist idea of individuals owning the means of production and using it to their own personal benefit if they like.
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Very well TIK. I'd describe myself as a socialist. A libertarian market socialist specifically. After I shortly explain my views, I'll tell you what you have to do to win me over. I like the free market, I just don't like the capitalist framework in which it functions (my main issue is the ability of capital investors to gain permanent ownership of a company, and a passive right to a portion of its profits even if they contributed nothing other than a one time investment). I think authoritarian states are abhorrent. Biggest lesson from the 20th century is that authoritarianism is ghastly and planned economies do not work. I accept the subjective theory of value, that's just basic economics. I think free market economics do a great job of allocating resources where they most efficiently meet the demands of the market(/society). And most importantly, a free market WORKS on a fundamental level.
I'm in favour of a free market in which businesses ONLY distribute profits among people who actually directly contribute to it (i.e. workers, including the people at the very top of the business). And I'd like this distribution to be reasonably linked to how important the contribution of a person is (I say reasonably because it's rarely possible to put an exact number as to the value of someone's labour, since value is subjective after all). This way, if the business runs well, everyone who made this happen receives the fruits of it. If a business doesn't run well, there is no profit distribution and perhaps even a cut on the wages of that month. Everyone in the business shares in both the profit and the losses. NO third party can gain ownership of another's business. Third parties may loan businesses capital for interest (reasonable interest) and other means of for-reward capital investments, as long as the reward enjoyed is reasonable and NOT permanent. Beyond this, the worker-owned businesses compete on a free market in the same way they do within capitalism. One important element is taken out: the concept of a shareholder does not exist. Only those within the business itself are entitled to the profits of their labour.
So.... tell me this one thing: why is the extreme emphasis that capitalism puts on rewarding capital investors NECESSARY for a functional economy (I call the idea of a one time payment entitling someone to a PERMANENT right to a part of the profits of others' labour extreme)? Or in other words, why can't a free market be organised in such a way that wealth is more evenly distributed? Why does a market supposedly collapse the moment you tinker with the ability of third party investors to grab a piece of the profits of a business?
I'm open to arguments, if I think you're correct I'll watch the entire economics in one lesson video you proposed and seriously consider becoming a capitalist.
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Hello TIK, thank you for clarifying your viewpoints. I understand them better now. Still, I have a few issues with your position that I will share.
1. Regarding socialism, you rightly quote various socialists' own definitions of socialism as, roughly speaking, public ownership of the means of production. What you have not considered, however, is WHY socialists want this. They do not want public ownership for the sake of public ownership, they have a specific goal to achieve with this public ownership of the means of production; socialism aims for (a representative government of) society as a whole to take control over the means of production, so that the economy is run in the interest of the entirety of society, rather than just a small, wealthy subset of it. Egalitarianism is a very important goal of socialism. By just quoting socialists' definition of socialism as "public ownership of the means of production" and stopping there, you end up missing a lot of the context surrounding what socialism as an ideology is. Essentially, you end up defining socialism by the means by which it means to achieve its goals, while ignoring the goals as such (and I hope we agree that the goals of any ideology are an absolutely central part of what that ideology is!).
This is why I think you rightly point out the connection between socialism and public control over the economy, but wrongly end up with an absolutist point of view that EVERY type of public control over the economy automatically is socialism. To apply this to calling publicly owned shares in a corporation a form of socialism; yes, technically this is (limited) public control over a corporation (i.e. a part of the economy/means of production). Does this however fit within the ideology of socialism? No, because socialism does not aim for limited public control over a part of the economy, it aims for a complete seizure of the means of production in order to ensure that the economy is run in the interest of society as a whole. That is the entire point of socialism; creating an egalitarian economy by having the government take control over it on behalf of the working class/society. A few hundred/thousand individuals buying shares is NOT the same thing as wishing for all means of production to be used in the interest of the broader society rather than individual interests. You already seem to partially see this by naming that you see this as more of a hybrid between public and private (which I would agree with), but you still choose to call this socialism (which I disagree with for above reason).
2. Also regarding socialism, I want to point out you almost exclusively quote authoritarian socialists that want a dictatorship of the proletariat in the from of a government taking direct control over the economy, but there are many other forms of socialism that do not share this view. Especially libertarian or anarchist forms of socialism may not fit this definition well. By quoting mainly authoritarian socialists, you may end up equating only this specific form of socialism with socialism as a whole. I understand this focus on authoritarian socialism, because historically we have for the grand majority of instances seen authoritarian socialism in practice (and failing all the time). But remember when speaking of socialism as a whole, libertarian and even anarchist socialism also exists. I feel like you have too little attention for this, which I understand, but then you must specify you are only/mainly speaking of authoritarian socialism.
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@LibertarianLeninistRants What you seem to be doing here is redefining socialism in such a way that any socialist state that ever existed doesn't even fall under that definition.
There is no democratic control by the workers over the means of production in any socialist system. It has always been the dictatorial central government, in the form of a communist party, setting up a planned economy. Furthermore, there always will be classes and hierarchy, you can only stop them from exploiting one another, as socialism attempts to do. In socialist states, you still had government officials contributing to the planned economy, you still had factory managers, you still had workers. And the former got paid more than the latter for their work. In that sense you still had upper and lower classes. The difference is that the upper class using their property of the means of production to exploit the working class and live off others' work was not possible under socialism; the classes worked together for a common goal and the means of production was collectively owned. You got paid for your actual work, not merely for owning the means of production. The manager still got paid more than the worker for his work.
Comparing that to National Socialism, you see striking similarities. Hitler hated the exploitation by corporations under capitalism, yet he also hated the universalist/egalitarian aspects of traditional socialism. National Socialism creates a system in which a dictatorial government, the NSDAP, creates a planned economy which takes control of the means of production to ensure they are used to the benefit of the German race (claiming this must be an economical category like the workers class seems arbitrary to me: the point of socialism is to stop the class struggle by having everyone work for a common goal). Farmers and factories get paid a fixed price for what they produce, exactly like under socialism. Managers and workers alike work for a common goal instead of exploiting one another in a class struggle, just like under socialism. The only difference in this regard might be the relationship between the factory "owners" and the workers. I'm unsure whether the wages in NS Germany were also fixed, in which case there would de facto again be no difference between traditional socialism and National Socialism, but if the factory managers (who were often government officials taking the place of the actual owner, but let's ignore that) could themselves decide the wages of the workers and how much they themselves would get, that'd be a clear difference.
NS may seem like capitalism on the surface, but it really wasn't. Under traditional socialism the means of production would be nationalised, while under NS private property was still allowed. However, the owners of a factory were bound by the planned economy and were dictated how to use the means of production they owned. In practice, instead of outright taking control of factories themselves, the government simply "outsourced" their management, if you will (and a lot of the time even sent actual government officials to manage factories that were de jure still owned by private entities). The outcome is the same: government control of the means of production and prevention of class exploitation. The main difference between NS and traditional socialism is who takes control of the means of production (workers class vs a race or nation in fascism) and how the planned economy is organised (but to the same result). So yes there are some significant differences between the two systems, but mainly theoretical differences laid in the attitude towards nations and races. So I don't see why NS could not be called its own separate version of socialism.
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