Comments by "Ggoddkkiller" (@ggoddkkiller1342) on "NativLang" channel.

I would completely agree Turkish a lot harder than western languages like German, French or especially English but it is quite similar to Japanaese or Korean. If you learn it's harmony and how it effects suffixes you are good to go.
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@sharpasacueball We don't share anything at all from our African past so your example doesn't make sense even a bit..
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The problem with anti-Altaicists their ''contact'' explanation for similarities doesn't makes sense at all. For example Hebrew and Arabic have a lot of similarity despite being from different families aka origin but they have been in contact for thousands of years. Not even in same region, country nor city, in same neighbourhoods Hebrew and Arabic speakers living next door to each others! And Hebrew and Arabic don't only share grammar similarity also vocabulary is shared, there are thousands of same or same origin words. Anybody could share when such a Turkic and Japanese contact happened? Nobody knows, only known contact between an Altaic language and Japanese was failed Mongol invasions which didn't last long, while it is believed both Korea and Japan took some Turkic migration in time. Even then lets see how similar their grammars are: https://youtu.be/FRMhkqovbwY?t=575 Even heavy usage of tense suffixes is exactly same which makes really hard to translate them to English. How such a limited contact that we can't even be sure it actually happaned made grammar of those languages so similar? And even if there was indeed such a heavy contact in an unknown time period wouldn't it supposed to effect vocabulary as well same as Hebrew and Arabic?? It just doesn't make sense but if we accept those languages are coming from same origin aka in same language family only then it starts making sense. And vocabulary is almost entirely different anymore simply because Turkish and Japanese have been seperated for thousands of years. Vocabulary constantly changes with loan words, semantic change etc while grammar, the core of languages not so easily! So the real problem of Altaic defenders and anti-Altaicists they think such a seperation happened in last 2 thousand years ago and we can still find the evidence of shared vocabulary today, but in reality such a seperation might actually had happened over 3-4 thousands years ago and can't be proven entirely like other language families anymore! Also most of those compared language families are a lot younger than even accepted ''two thousands years age'' of Altaic family which is completely ignored again...
4
Could be King Kim Alji who increased Altaic influence in Korea. But i think it goes far before him simply because there is no contact between Japan and Altaic people in last two thousands years. Even then still Japanese also share pretty much exactly same grammar with Altaic languages. For example even the usage of tense suffixes is exactly same: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=FRMhkqovbwY&t=575s I think there must be more contacts or migrations etc during unknown time period between 3-4 thousands years ago to cause such similarity.
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The problem with anti-Altaicists their ''contact'' explanation for similarities doesn't makes sense at all. For example Hebrew and Arabic have a lot of similarity despite being from different families aka origin but they have been in contact for thousands of years. Not even in same region, country nor city, in same neighbourhoods Hebrew and Arabic speakers living next door to each others! And Hebrew and Arabic don't only share grammar similarity also vocabulary is shared, there are thousands of same or same origin words. Anybody could share when such a Turkic and Japanese contact happened? Nobody knows, only known contact between an Altaic language and Japanese was failed Mongol invasions which didn't last long, while it is believed both Korea and Japan took some Turkic migration in time. Even then lets see how similar their grammars are: https://youtu.be/FRMhkqovbwY?t=575 Even heavy usage of tense suffixes is exactly same which makes really hard to translate them to English. How such a limited contact that we can't even be sure it actually happaned made grammar of those languages so similar? And even if there was indeed such a heavy contact in an unknown time period wouldn't it supposed to effect vocabulary as well same as Hebrew and Arabic?? It just doesn't make sense but if we accept those languages are coming from same origin aka in same language family only then it starts making sense. And vocabulary is almost entirely different anymore simply because Turkish and Japanese have been seperated for thousands of years. Vocabulary constantly changes with loan words, semantic change etc while grammar, the core of languages not so easily! So the real problem of Altaic defenders and anti-Altaicists they think such a seperation happened in last 2 thousand years ago and we can still find the evidence of shared vocabulary today, but in reality such a seperation might actually had happened over 3-4 thousands years ago and can't be proven entirely like other language families anymore! Also most of those compared language families are a lot younger than even accepted ''two thousands years age'' of Altaic family which is completely ignored again...
3
The problem with anti-Altaicists their ''contact'' explanation for similarities doesn't makes sense at all. For example Hebrew and Arabic have a lot of similarity despite being from different families aka origin but they have been in contact for thousands of years. Not even in same region, country nor city, in same neighbourhoods Hebrew and Arabic speakers living next door to each others! And Hebrew and Arabic don't only share grammar similarity also vocabulary is shared, there are thousands of same or same origin words. Anybody could share when such a Turkic and Japanese contact happened? Nobody knows, only known contact between an Altaic language and Japanese was failed Mongol invasions which didn't last long, while it is believed both Korea and Japan took some Turkic migration in time. Even then lets see how similar their grammars are: https://youtu.be/FRMhkqovbwY?t=575 Even heavy usage of tense suffixes is exactly same which makes really hard to translate them to English. How such a limited contact that we can't even be sure it actually happaned made grammar of those languages so similar? And even if there was indeed such a heavy contact in an unknown time period wouldn't it supposed to effect vocabulary as well same as Hebrew and Arabic?? It just doesn't make sense but if we accept those languages are coming from same origin aka in same language family only then it starts making sense. And vocabulary is almost entirely different anymore simply because Turkish and Japanese have been seperated for thousands of years. Vocabulary constantly changes with loan words, semantic change etc while grammar, the core of languages not so easily! So the real problem of Altaic defenders and anti-Altaicists they think such a seperation happened in last 2 thousand years ago and we can still find the evidence of shared vocabulary today, but in reality such a seperation might actually had happened over 3-4 thousands years ago and can't be proven entirely like other language families anymore! Also most of those compared language families are a lot younger than even accepted ''two thousands years age'' of Altaic family which is completely ignored again...
2
I don't know how he included Basque but Hungarian is indeed similar to Altaic languages and not by somebody's claim Hungarians themselves say so. They even joined Turkic council in 2018...
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@realitywins9020 The real crazy thing here as a foreigner to both Hungarians and Turkic people you somehow ''know'' their origin better than them which is just moronic!! You should think more carefully before claiming anything.. About the subject Hungarian is not more closely related to Indo-european languages i really wonder where you learned that. And there is indeed quite connection between Hungarian and Turkic languages, for example modern Hungarian has 10% of Turkic vocabulary roots which is a huge percentage especially if we consider Uralic roots are only 21%! Grammatical and phonological features are also very similar which ofc doesn't prove Hungarians are Turkic people at all but it proves there is indeed a connection. It also make sense because there wasn't a Nomadic nation as ''Huns'' rather it was a Nomadic confederation consisting many different Nomadic peoples from many different regions and it is actually well proven there were Turkic people involved as well. So it is up to Hungarians to decide their origin not me or not you! You can only respect their decision if you could manage such a thing ofc, By the way Turkic council's main missions were only preserving Turkic languages and incresing economic cooperation between member states so far as it is still quite young organization. But somehow it is still ''a political organization'' which requires justification to join, huh?? I guess for you everything which has ''Turkic'' in it becomes something political, top level of preconception..
1
The problem with anti-Altaicists their ''contact'' explanation for similarities doesn't makes sense at all! For example Hebrew and Arabic have a lot of similarity despite being from different families aka origin but they have been in contact for thousands of years. Not even in same region, country nor city, in same neighbourhoods Hebrew and Arabic speakers living next door to each others! And Hebrew and Arabic don't only share grammar similarity also vocabulary is shared, there are thousands of same or same origin words. Care to share when such a Turkic and Japanese contact happened? Nobody knows, only known contact between an Altaic language and Japanese was failed Mongol invasions which didn't last long, while it is believed both Korea and Japan took some Turkic migration in time. Even then lets see how similar their grammars are: https://youtu.be/FRMhkqovbwY?t=575 Even heavy usage of tense suffixes is EXACTLY same which makes really hard to translate them to English! How such a limited contact that we can't even be sure it actually happaned made grammar of those languages so similar? Lets even assume there was such a contact somehow, then how exactly Turkish and Japanese share so little vocabulary, if there was indeed such a heavy contact wouldn't it supposed to effect vocabulary as well same as Hebrew and Arabic?? It just doesn't make sense but if we accept those languages are coming from same origin aka in same language family only then it starts making sense. And vocabulary is almost entirely different anymore simply because Turkish and Japanese have been seperated for thousands of years. Vocabulary constantly changes with loan words, semantic change etc while grammar, the core of languages not so easily! So the real problem of Altaic defenders and anti-Altaicists they think such a seperation happened less than 2 thousand years ago and we can still find the evidence of shared vocabulary today, but in reality such a seperation might actually had happened over 3-4 thousands years ago and can't be proven entirely like other language families!! The worst of all those compared language families are a lot younger than even accepted ''two thousands years age'' of Altaic family which is completely ignored once again...
1
The problem with anti-Altaicists their ''contact'' explanation for similarities doesn't makes sense at all. For example Hebrew and Arabic have a lot of similarity despite being from different families aka origin but they have been in contact for thousands of years. Not even in same region, country nor city, in same neighbourhoods Hebrew and Arabic speakers living next door to each others! And Hebrew and Arabic don't only share grammar similarity also vocabulary is shared, there are thousands of same or same origin words. Anybody could share when such a Turkic and Japanese contact happened? Nobody knows, only known contact between an Altaic language and Japanese was failed Mongol invasions which didn't last long, while it is believed both Korea and Japan took some Turkic migration in time. Even then lets see how similar their grammars are: https://youtu.be/FRMhkqovbwY?t=575 Even heavy usage of tense suffixes is exactly same which makes really hard to translate them to English. How such a limited contact that we can't even be sure it actually happaned made grammar of those languages so similar? And even if there was indeed such a heavy contact in an unknown time period wouldn't it supposed to effect vocabulary as well same as Hebrew and Arabic?? It just doesn't make sense but if we accept those languages are coming from same origin aka in same language family only then it starts making sense. And vocabulary is almost entirely different anymore simply because Turkish and Japanese have been seperated for thousands of years. Vocabulary constantly changes with loan words, semantic change etc while grammar, the core of languages not so easily! So the real problem of Altaic defenders and anti-Altaicists they think such a seperation happened in last 2 thousand years ago and we can still find the evidence of shared vocabulary today, but in reality such a seperation might actually had happened over 3-4 thousands years ago and can't be proven entirely like other language families anymore! Also most of those compared language families are a lot younger than even accepted ''two thousands years age'' of Altaic family which is completely ignored again...
1
@crystaluwu1012 Completely false, there is no contact between Japanese and Turkic peoples in known history. That means those people are living separated at least for 2000 years if not more. Care to share two languages from same common ancestry which were separated so long? Lack of similar vocabulary doesn't prove those languages aren't from same common ancestor rather only proves there wasn't any contact for a long time exactly same as known history suggests. Let's even assume they aren't indeed from same ancestor then care to explain how exactly Japanese and Turkish languages still have so similar grammar today even if those peoples have been living ten thousand miles apart with no contact? Watch the video i shared to see how similar Japanese and Turkish grammars are, such a high level of similarity can not happen out of thin air..
1