Comments by "Ggoddkkiller" (@ggoddkkiller1342) on "Has the Middle East ever been at Peace? | History of the Middle East 1600-1800 - 4/21" video.

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  5.  @JabzyJoe  And who were those highwaymen and criminals, foreign people? There were also often local rulers and clans who used the lack of central power to enrich themselves. Ottoman also had armies and garrisons in the region but they weren't enough to chase every single criminal in the countryside exactly same as it was for British empire so they both had agreements with locals and used them to control the region. You gotta be so ridiculous to claim British empire controlled Scotland and Ottoman couldn't control Arabia while their control was almost exactly same. There were also many conflicts between Scottish clans as well until they were abolished in 1746 and any Scott opposing was slaughtered! If Ottoman did such a thing you were claiming it was a genocide but ofc it was an act of ''saving people and establishing order'' in case of British empire i bet!! You don't have to be such ridiculously biased you know.. I would completely agree conditions in British empire/Europe became way better but it wasn't because they could convince locals with roses and kisses rather because they brutally suppressed them all! On the other hand Ottoman didn't until they actually rebelled against the empire, only debate is if Ottoman didn't choose to do it or just couldn't do it. In 1900 there were only 10 million Turks living while Arabic population was around 40 million + Ottoman was constantly at war in Balkans and also against russian empire + the economy was a mess. So it is safe to say they couldn't do it in 19th century or later. The biggest problem of Ottoman they didn't use assimilation policies like other empires so after French revolution and Millet system's religious identity wasn't enough for minorities it was pretty much game over.
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