Youtube comments of (@sebe2255).

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  9. @ I am actually not. Perhaps I just know more about it than the few simplistic statements that are presented in this video. Like saying that French was only spoken in an area around Paris and that the whole rest of France was filled with completely different languages. While in reality these kingdoms would have (mostly) dialect contiuums and people would absolutely still understand each other. Provided they didn’t speak a completely different minority language like Basque or Breton For example the English identity has existed since the 9th century. We know this because this is when the people of the 9th century start describing themselves as Anglo-Saxon or English, even when contrasting themselves to continental Saxons for example. These aren’t my ideas, these are the people if the time describing themselves as such. We also have medieval lawcodes that explicitly put legal distinctions between freemen and welshmen. The word Welsh itself means something like stranger our outlander. Which is also where the name Walloon in the Low Countries comes from. And this applies to other Germanic tribes of the post Roman world as well. Many of them had laws for their own tribes and laws for the people they ruled over of different tribes or broader backgrounds. Some nations are very new, like the Belgian one or somewhere in between like the Dutch or the Russian (about 500 years old) ones. But some are well over a thousand years old and have even earlier direct tribal roots. The idea that the concept of a shared heritage, identity and country or in other words a nation is exclusively modern is laughable. It is basically revisionist propaganda. What did happen is that the identity/nation often expanded and assimilated into it either minority groups or closely related groups and tribes with a shared heritage. But that doesn’t mean that what came befofe came out of nowhere and nothing and that there is no continuity between the expanded nation and its earlier form.
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  225.  @ZwaartEntertainment  They call themselves Franks, but they aren’t actually Franks. They, like the French, just inherited the name as a result of Frankish conquest of the region. Also Old Frankish/Low Franconian is not just a term for regional languages that happen to not belong to any of the other ones. That would imply Dutch isn’t actually Frankish but that they just slapped the name old Frankish on it because it isn’t Saxo or something and that Dutch actually has nothing to do with Frankish. But that is ridiculous. The evidence for the southern Low Countries being the heartland of the Franks who settled in Rome (Salian Franks) is overwhelming. Dutch is descended from Old Frankish, and the main existing Frankish language today. Unlike East Frankish (the language of the Franks in Franconia) where the linguistic connection to old Frankish is unclear. They actually just have the name East Frankish for their language because it is unclear what orher group they would otherwise belong to. But there is no indication that when the Franks conquered the region in the 5-7th centuries that they saw these people as kin. Germans (and German regional languages) from Hesse, NRW and the Rheinland are all more Frankish than the Franken region is. The region around Cologne was the heartland of the Franks that remained east of the Rhine (Ripurian Franks). Their Frankish regional languages just got absorbed into standard German and are dying out Lastly, in traditional Dutch history the modern Dutch people are directly described as Franks, Saxons and Frisians. So it isn’t like the Dutch don’t see themselves as the descendants of the Franks or don’t call themselves as such. Especially in the regions below the Rhinez even though what is now Holland was also colonized by Franks, who either killed, drove out or assimilated the Frisians. The Saxons just live in the East
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  267.  @N0Time  Historians don’t say that lmao. Nation building/revisionist French historians may say that. Clovis absolutely wasn’t French nor the the first king of France. France literally did not exist and it wouldn’t exist for centuries. This is not exactly comparable to Alfred. It would be more like saying Odoacer was Italin. Alfred was a Saxon and styled himself king of the Anglo Saxons. And it was his grandson who would first be the king of England. The Saxons are a Germanic people, who founded a Germanic kingdom made up predominantly of Saxons and Angles. Clovis was a Frank who invaded Gaul, and who would be king of a country that would eventually, centuries later, also lead to the creation of France and of a French culture. This French culture would have very little connection to the Frankish culture of Clovis, and not only that, it did not even exist yet. French culture as we know it today comes mainly from the area around Paris, and was adopted by the Frankish nobles that settled in Gaul a little after Charlemagne. Additionally, Clovis adopting Christianity is just a propaganda moment. Christianity obviously already existed in Gaul, that is the whole reason why the Franks converted, not the other way around. Naturally, Clovis is part of French history. You need to know about him to understand why France would develop centuries later. But the conversion of Clovis is not the beginning of France, nor was Clovis French. He was a Frank, and again it would take about 4-5 centuries for the Franks that settled in gaul to assimilate in and contribute to the creation of a French culture. Just because France ended up being a blend of some peoples (though France is mostly made up if Latinized gauls nonetheless) doesn’t mean that you can go to the beginning of this process and call all the people involved French. This is anachronism
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  523.  @noelleggett5368  Except we don’t know exactly what happened, and genetic, linguistic and contemporary evidence points to large scale settlement, not just Saxons becoming traders and elites. If it was only a few traders and rulers the genetic impact would have been much more limited (like the Franks in Gaul or Normans in Normandy or England). Also any extrapolation based on what happened to the Irish can be dismissed out of hand. Highly centralized states could enforce language bans, and even then it didn’t work. It took the famine to actually destroy Irish. But a decentralized early medieval state did not have the capacity to ban languages, nor enforce any such ban on their people. The theory that there were only a few Germanic settlers is popular with people who want to deconstruct Englishness. But that theory was already based on very weak archeological eviction to begin with, and has been completely disproven in the last 10 years with genetic evidence. But even without it didn’t make any sense. As if the Celtic Britons just all abandoned their language en-masse in favor of this minority ruling class tongue, even people in villages who would never need to trade or speak Old English. And not only that, that they didn’t leave any linguistic traces in old English? That is beyond what one can reasonably believe. Because languages do actually mix rather well, it is called loan words. It is why modern English had a lot of French words, introduced here by a feudal ruling class. But old English is still the core of the language. It is why French has Frankish loan words, but Latin is still the core of the language. If there had only been a few Saxons the situation of the French language would have been more likely. A latin language with significant Frankish loanwords and pronunciation. Basically the “small settlement” theory is outdated rubbish. And even when it had some plausibility, it was plagued by huge holes and rested on biased interpretations of archeological evidence.
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  546.  @elevatormusic3421 That is just nonsense. The core Frankish lands are in the Low Countries and the Rhineland. The Franks that lived there were not oppressed, whiped out or changed through assimilation or conquest. They literally still speak modern Frankish today. They naturally developed into what are now the Dutch and some West Germans. The French can’t pretend to be a people they are not simply because the Eastern half of the Frankish Empire was more powerful and able to reform Charlemagne’s Empire. Because that is the only reason that France was the only state left calling itself Frankish. It also doesn’t matter that the Dutch state as such didn’t exist until the 16th century. The Dutch state and culture is made up of the Frankish people and language. Besides that, I used Dutch in a broader context, not in terms of statehood. The only thing Frankish about France now are the names of historical kings who’se families have long been deposed. And the French are in no way Frankish. And are we supposed to pretend that France is actually still a continuation of the Frankish Kingdom of West Frankia? Like they are somehow the same despite a thousand and more years of history with even their monarchy being overthrown? And all that just because their name sounds similar? Political continuation is a vague and useless concept. But I understand why the French would want to claim the Franks for themselves. It is a bit embarrassing to be named after your conquerors That being said they can claim the political continuation if they want, even if it is meaningless. But they should stop claiming to be a people they aren’t. Oh and as a sidenote the Dutch and Belgian regions of Brabant are also actually direct political continuations of the Frankish kingdoms. As this Duchy was born out of Lower Lorraine and they were the Dukes of Lothier (Lotheringia) until, you guessed it, the French Revolution happened. The French of course invaded and abolished the Duchy of Lothier, but Brabant still comes directly from a Frankish political entity. It is also no coincidence that the region of Brabant (as well as Limburg and Flanders) were the centers of medieval Dutch culture, and these regions are the homelands of the Franks
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  773.  @meh2972  Dutch is not the historic regional language, it is a form of Saxon. Now of course because of the integration into the Dutch they primarily speak Dutch now. But I was talking about their historical language. Because again the people of the Eastern Netherlands are Saxon, and have been since the Franks left and were driven out. Well if the Franks came from the North as you suggested, then that doesn’t leave a lot of room for other regions they could have come from. As you are such an expert you must know north of Saland, were the Frisians and Saxons. Also I am not saying the modern Dutch don’t come from the Franks. I am saying that the Franks aren’t originally from the Netherlands. But the people of the Netherlands, specifically the area below the Rhine, as above the Rhine it is far more mixed (or just straight up Frisian and Saxon not Frankish), are Frankish. So you just didn’t read what I said Lastly it is you who clearly doesn’t know what he is talking about. The Karolingians were centered around Aachen, Maastricht and Liege, basically the Rhine-Meuse valleys. The Merovingians were firmly based around Tournai, Lille and then various cities in Northern France after the conquest of Gaul. Their power base was certainly not anywhere close to the modern Netherlands. Because the Netherlands at this time (again above the Rhine) were primarily Frisian and Saxon. Please don’t state such obvious nonsense, it betrays that you don’t actually know the differences between the early and later Frankish period. Which is especially funny when you accuse me of ignorance. The Dutch (most of them) and the modern Flemish, are Frankish. But they are migrators, they didn’t originally come from the low countries.
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  1165.  @grantjohnston7972  Lmao it actually wasn’t. And it hasn’t seen that population since because right when the population of other European countries was starting to boom due to better child mortality rates and technological improvements, the Irish had suffered a massive crisis with huge impact on their demographic situation. What was that again? Oh yeah the famine! Ireland can easily sustain more than 8 million people lmao. It is a large country with more than enough farmland. But it is almost like when you force them use potatoes because other people own most of their land and they then starve their population doesn’t increase. The Irish peasants didn’t rely on potatoes because they were overpopulated. They relied on potatoes because they have a better nutritional value per acre which was necessary because British lord owned all their land and exported the valuable meat and other crops. They couldn’t use grain because they didn’t have access to enough land to live on grain. Again because the British owned all the land and just made the Irish work on it. After Cromwell and William III the British owned over 90% of the land. So they couldn’t use the land to feed themselves. If they had been able to use the land and thus had not been impacted as much by the famine they would have had around 20-25 million people now. You are just shilling for the British Empire. But you are too biased to be reasoned with. And I am not going to waste more time arguing with a shill
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  1255.  @davepx1  Frisians and especially Franks were a small component, and Frisians are most likely a branch of Saxons, and they are definitely a North Sea West Germanic people. Franks would at least be Wesser-Rhine Germanic, but even there, Dutch is the second closest language to English, and Dutch is the modern form of Frankish. So these were all closely related people. Them being politically disunited doesn’t change that I never said the modern English aren’t Celtic genetically. It is your side that is spending a lot of effort try to prove the opposite, in vain because luckily for us now genetic evidence has disproven the small settlement theory Also placenames are not the same as words in a language. The native Americans were whiped out completely in large parts of the Americas, even more so than Celts in Britain, yet a lot of their place names remain. But if that is too far, Roman names in Britain don’t mean that Romans had any significant impact on Old English or on the people of Britain. Given that they had all left before the Anglo-Saxons invaded. In the actual spoken language of Old English though there are like 6 known loanwords from Celtic Britonic languages. Which is shockingly little Archeological evidence in this case is limited and people use it to just try and prove beliefs they already had. We don’t have any archeological evidence for the battle of Hastings either but that battle definitely happened. And that is a case where you know where and what to look for. So a lack of burials or graves on either side doesn’t prove anything on its own. It can be used as an indicator, but when that indicator is directly contradicted by genetics, contemporary sources and linguistic theories, it has to take a back seat Is it likely bede exaggerated? Yes. Does that mean anglo saxons don’t exist or that there was almost no Germanic settlement in Britain? From the most recent evidence we have, no it doesn’t
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