Comments by "Digital Nomad" (@digitalnomad9985) on "PragerU" channel.

  1. John Waters says: "It's just a straw man - a completely analogy if you wish." Did you mean "completely an analogy" or " a complete analogy" "a specific type of consciousness" I never said that. Dawkins tries to explain consciousness as an epiphenomenon of material processes. Set aside proving it for the moment, to even make an epiphenomenal claim plausible you must give a hint as to how the epiphenomenon reduces to the presumed substrate, or at a minimum, how they might both reduce to the same category. Without such, the claim is meaningless, and does not rise to the level of error. Before you call this a revised argument it is the same argument. My original argument. If this is not clear I can amplify it. (Thoughts)..." have not always existed (since not even I have always existed) therefore they must have causes (that must actually be external), which makes your claim completely false. " I should have said "There is no a priori reason to attribute their cause to a specific something else". In other words your attribution of a thoughts cause to itself, or to another thought, is not the only alternative to attributing them to material causes. Many world views other than materialism have an internally consistent attributions for these causes. The one you attacked is held by no one. I can tell you what I, for example, believe about the matter if you like. But one does not need a specific example to know that the alternative you proposed is not the only alternative. That is obvious. "The reason why we accept "reasoned thought and reject caused thought". is that it is consistent to some degree. A working calculator is consistent, therefore it is trusted. One that has shows incorrect results half the time is not." Indeed the distinction may well be inductive, that is, we may have arrived at it by experience. That does not invalidate the distinction. Occam's razor is "Entities are not to be multiplied needlessly. The simplest explanation is probably the best one." Google is our friend. "My actions are weighted according to what is beneficial and to the understanding that other people are not so different from me or from each other. "? Your are staking a claim to act on good morals, not stating a basis for morality. In order to reason to moral conclusions, you must start with moral premises. Logically, there is no way to reason from premises in the indicative mood to conclusions in the imperative mood. There is no way to get from an "is" to an "ought". "'the notions you use as assumptions to disprove free will.' Those assumptions have been the ones assumed in the video (because that was what I was commenting about and disproving)." The video did not assume the truth of naturalism. The point of my last paragraph was that your invocation of "burden of proof" was an unfortunate one because the position you are arguing against is the common sense or default one, despite a great deal of propaganda and cultural conditioning to the contrary. About "baseless". Logic demands premises to reach conclusions. Premises are baseless. One can nevertheless use logic to reject premises, or combinations of premises, or invalid deductions, which are inconsistent, for example: You say "you cannot show how free will fits into materialism, therefore free will does not exist." Then you say "I cannot show how consciousness fits into materialism, but it fits anyway."
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  2. replying to +John Waters: Invoking "burden of proof" in an academic discussion or debate, where there are no immediate consequences of the outcome independent of that outcome, is to simply beg to be allowed to assume that which should be proven. "The house wins all ties," but who died and made you the house? You can, and probably will, continue to insist that I shoulder the "burden of proof", but unless you give me a logical reason why I should spot you ties, I will continue to ignore it. You said "Internally consistent, as the assertion that "I can fly, therefore I can fly" is internally consistent yet completely unsubstantiated..." As? What is the similarity? I was not claiming that internal consistency proves a notion, I was noting that there were alternatives to your straw man carefully chosen for inconsistency, namely thoughts causing themselves. "You can either claim that occam's razor only applies to explanations, and therefore my principle is not occam's razor OR you can say that the principle I used is not occam's razor." 2 posts prior you said: "I need only to accept the most likely explanation based on the facts and the implications of those facts." YOU stated your principle as applying to explanations. I said, "In order to reason to moral conclusions, you must start with moral premises." You said, "Not really." Yes, really. That premises in the indicative mood do not lead to conclusions in the imperative mood is a principle of formal logic "Logic is our friend." "I just need a mutually shared goal with other people in a community." Self interest, even enlightened self interest, is not morality. Morality begins where self interest ends. Morality is sacrificing your interest for the good of another who objectively (on moral premises) has a better claim. "Your claim simply demonstrates that your morals are baseless." My claim is that morality requires a base. Your assumptions lead to the conclusion that ALL MORALS are baseless. If what I call my moral notions are simply the manipulation of "selfish genes", then they can no more logically command my loyalty than any other genetic trait, like the color of my eyes. " ' "I cannot show how consciousness fits into materialism, but it fits anyway." ' On a side note: it does not fit at all." "Side note"? Good grief! If you mean that consciousness does not fit into materialism, you are CONCEDING THE MAIN POINT OF MY MAIN ARGUMENT! If you stipulate that consciousness does not fit into materialism, do you hold that consciousness does not exist, or concede that materialism is false?
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  23. +The_Blazer "Gun laws do not impact criminals directly but that isn't the same as not impacting them at all. Every "illegal" gun started out as a legal gun built in a factory somewhere that eventually went lost or stolen somewhere, if you make it harder for the losing/stealing part to happen you reduce the supply of illegal guns" Not every illegal gun was originally manufactured for legitimate CIVILIAN use. In the US, most gun murders are "drive by" shootings where the instrument is a "machine pistol", a semi-concealable fully automatic weapon firing pistol caliber ammo. NONE of these were lost or stolen from a legitimate civilian private owner or dealer catering to same. The driver of violent crime is the ratio of risk between the good guys and the bad guys. In the UK, the most common form of theft from private homes is a small team of men breaking in to a home WHEN THEY KNOW THE OWNERS ARE HOME and awake and stealing their stuff and personal effects, getting the haul of a burglar and a mugger at the same time and not having to stay up late or fumble around in the dark. As the UK tallies crime, this does not count as a "violent crime", unless someone actually gets physically injured, even though the threat of force is central to the modus operandi. This does not happen in the US, for good and sufficient reason. Disarming all citizens in hopes of reducing the armament of criminals isn't just oppressive, it is bad policy with respect to every practical consideration. What you HOPE TO gain is not worth what you WILL lose. "Those who would give up essential Liberty, to purchase a little temporary Safety, deserve neither Liberty nor Safety." - Ben Franklin And in the end will loose both. - Digital Nomad
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  28. "from any Brit's point of view" You should take a look at British views represented in these comment pages. "We have far superior brains when it comes to inventions" US grants about 30,000 patents a year, about half from foreign applicants https://www.uspto.gov/web/offices/ac/ido/oeip/taf/us_stat.htm "Last year there were 5,037 patent applications to the EPO filed by British applicants, the highest number since 2011. However, the UK still lags behind many of its European neighbours when patent applications are counted per head of population." http://smallbusiness.co.uk/more-uk-companies-protecting-intellectual-property-year-on-year-2509711/ I don't attribute the difference to "American brains", but to a society more amenable to innovation, but then again, I'm not a racist. Yes, US education has declined since the 60s. The problem is public sector unions and the US federal Department of Education, 2 things which did not exist in the 60s. The solution is education vouchers, which conservatives support and leftists oppose (and eliminating public sector unions and the federal Department of Education). "The UK gives very generously too given the size of this island." Not bad. The UK gives .84% of it's gdp in private charitable giving, ranking seventh in the table coming in at just under half the US figure. Given the hundreds of countries counted, that is impressive. (Somehow, I doubt that you personally are among the generous.) US tops this figure at 1.85%, with Israel a close second at 1.35%. http://ccss.jhu.edu/wp-content/uploads/downloads/2013/02/Comparative-data-Tables_2004_FORMATTED_2.2013.pdf Chart is on page 7. "America can afford to give generously being as you have looted Trillions from countries invaded for no reason whatsoever." I don't know where you're getting this notion. Make your slanders specific, so I can refute them. "The only thing that astonishes me is why the US has not been held accountable for war crimes? Then you have you're pathetic lust for guns. Mad world we live in, that is made all the madder by dumber Americans." [sic] If you are going to brag about your education and intelligence, you should avoid putting question marks at the end of sentences that aren't questions and abusing a contraction (FYI, that should be "your"). Now to the specifics. The US healthy enthusiasm for guns and gun ownership has served us well. https://www.telegraph.co.uk/news/uknews/law-and-order/5712573/UK-is-violent-crime-capital-of-Europe.html While the US does rank somewhere in the 80s worldwide in per capita murders overall, which is high for a western country, the devil is in the details. Virtually all of these murders take place in certain Democrat dominated municipalities with strict gun control laws. Counties with the highest rate of gun ownership have the lowest crime rates. In the UK it is becoming more common for thieves to invade British homes when they know the occupants are home. Instead of sneaking around at night, or mugging people in the streets, they break in and get the combined haul of a burglary and a mugging in one job. Naturally, in a nation where gun ownership for self defense by private citizens is prohibited, they can count on 3 young strong men with clubs or knives being able to overpower whatever is waiting for them inside. http://www.dailymail.co.uk/news/article-1245417/Burglary-victims-attacked-home-30-minutes.html https://morethanjustsurviving.com/home-invasion-story/ https://pjmedia.com/blog/u-k-crime-statistics-hit-record-high/ https://answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20131121221254AAanQAF This does not happen in the US for good and sufficient reason. In this area and most, we're doing it right and Europe is doing it wrong. We can, for instance, defend ourselves from Brits seeking to wrongfully hang us (original post).
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