Comments by "Winston Smith" (@kryts27) on "Deliberate or Accident? The German Blitz of Rotterdam 1940" video.

  1. This is something i don't know about the Wehrmacht's invasion of the Netherlands in 1940. Did the German government issue a clear ultimatum to the Dutch government before their forces moved over the Dutch border or (like Belgium in World War 1 and 2) they violated the neutrality of non-belligerant neutral states (which by this act alone is and should be a war crime) by failing at least to issue such an ultimatum before invading? An act of war is at least a political act and you cannot absolve reponsibility of criminality and illegal actions by the armed forced of the state in violating treaties it's government previously honoured (the German government DID previously sign the Geneva convention including clauses witholding armed intervention against the territories of neutral states and their ships). There are numerous examples of violations and close violations of neutrality AT SEA in international waters long before WW2, so the Wehrmacht and naturally the Nazi government (with this full knowledge of historical precedence) committed a war crime just by invading Belgium, the Netherlands and Denmark.
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