Comments by "Cartoon Mo!" (@cartoonmo5976) on "Young debater challenges Bob on the deity of Christ | Bob | Speakers' Corner Debate #socofilms" video.

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  4.  jahtruthdefender   Actually my little cherry picker, I state what I state based on the former statements in John 5:17-19 "But Jesus answered them, To this very day My Father is at His work, and I too am working.” "Because of this, the Jews tried all the harder to kill Him. Not only was He breaking the Sabbath, but He was even calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God." And you've affirmed that your position is dependant on your logic regarding John 5:19, Well John 5:19 only strengthens my position because again, the Son can only do what the Son "Sees" the Father doing, so again, the Father doesn't have to teach the Son, the Son already has the means and ability to do, the Father is merely showing the Son the Way and Will of the Father, and as is evident in 5:19, the Son in concurrence is Eager and Willing to be shown in order to do the Father's Will! And I'll just point out, that just because the Father shows Jesus, that's irrelevant to Will, same as knowledge,...... If your father has shown you things willing that you do, and you're in concurrence and do, for example, your father shows you how to treat your mother, and you are in concurrence with your father in the way your mother should be tret and therefore do as your father has shown and willed you do, at any point were you truly lacking in any knowledge or capability, and at any point was your will independant of your fathers will!?! Also your position is a paradoxical oxymoron!..... You're saying that in order for the Father and Son to have One Will, the Father and Son have to have independant Wills, which would defeat your former statement! Finally, let's not let John 5:18 go unaddressed, Who did Jesus Himself declare equality with!?! Now, Revelation 1:1, You've identified that God is the Father, and that the revelation came direct from Jesus, You then say that Jesus then communicated the revelation through "His" angel. And then that this dictates Jesus to be an intermediary and not as God Himself, who you identify as the Father. Well that's again paradoxically oxymoronic! We don't claim the Father and Son are hypostatically one and the same, that's called Modalism my dear fellow, and Modalism isn't Triunism!....You seem to have this misunderstanding that hypostatic distinction bares some sort of relevance, it doesn't, so let it go!..... Also, you use "Him" when referring to both the Father and Jesus! And you expose another oxymoron in stating that Jesus is a mediator, intermediary, and if fully God Jesus wouldn't need to receive anything from God, but you state that Jesus sent an angel, that angel would be the mediator, the intermediary, the one providing the revelation, but it's meant to be Jesus' Revelation from the Father according to you! Now, I'll help you out..... God is the Father in this introduction to the book, the Father gave revelation to Jesus for Jesus Himself to show us, not for Jesus to delegate the task to an angel to show us! "He made it known by sending His Angel to His servant John", If the Father gave Jesus revelation to show us, and the "He" sent "His Angel" to "His servant John", who is the "He", and who is "the Angel"!?! Think about it, either Jesus is God, or the Angel of God, and as we've identified the Father is God, Jesus has to be the Angel of God/the Father! Now here's where even if you want to try and dispute whether Jesus is the Angel of God or Jesus sent an angel...... Whoever is the Angel of God in Revelation 1:1 is the one and same Angel of God Who declared explicitly that the Angel of God Himself is God in Genesis 31:13! So, now you have to accept that either Jesus is God, or, your position dictates there's another angel that is god alongside God, which is it!?! You also said in your response to cooloutac that you understand John 10:30 to mean the Father and Jesus are unified in purpose and action, this would dictate identical Will, you've just refuted your yourself by proving and affirming my position with your fallacy against cooloutac. Which by default refutes your entire position because you've acknowledged now that the Father and Jesus are One in a way, and you affirm that one can have many meanings/applications, which dictates that your position being dependant on one only being applicable and meaning one singular hypostatically is a flawed and false premise/presupposition to hold/appeal to! If there's One Divine Nature, Substance, Esscence, Will, And this One Divine Nature, Substance, Esscence, Will unifies the Father, Son, & Holy Spirit, And by default it's this One Divine Nature, Substance, Esscence, Will that makes the hypostasis Divine, How many Divine Natures, Substances, Esscences, Wills are there!?! On these grounds, my answer to your final question/statement..... I'd be unable to agree with your final statement as it's proven fallacious!
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