Comments by "bart thomassen thomassen" (@thomassenbart) on "Geopolitical Futures" channel.

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  11.  @giovanni8304  I appreciate your response. The Germans could have simply accepted Soviet hegemony, as could have Italy, France and others. All of these nations had substantial Marxist/Communist parties and there was a great deal of sympathy for these philosophies throughout the West until the Soviet collapse, as I previously stated. Germany also could have opted for neutrality, like Austria and Finland, which is what the Soviets wanted. The question of the use of nukes in the event of an actual Soviet invasion is a real one. Certainly, that was the rhetoric and we had the capability but once USSR was technical capacity of hitting US cities with their own nukes, one wonders if any president would have launched in the face of a solely conventional attack. Though Germany and Japan were both occupied nations, they did have a measure of control over their own national destinies. This is obvious as the years progressed. Still, I take your point. You don't have to accept Friedman's view but it is hardly foolish and two things can be true at the same time. So, the US had multiple motivations for its various actions and foreign policies during the Cold War but the overarching one was containment of international communism. This was accomplished via the Marshall Plan, Roll back in Greece, the establishment of NATO, Korea and Vietnam and the funding of guerilla movements globally, detente, the China card and finally Star Wars, AF and substantial rearmament in the 80s. Keeping Europe united against the USSR and combatting the pacifist, socialist movements therein, was critical in this project. Reassuring the Europeans of American resolve was a constant issue. So, if you would like to disprove Friedman, I am open to counter evidence. At the same time, I do not accept his De Gaulle theory as the prime mover in American involvement in S. E. Asia but am open to the idea as a component or complimentary motivation. Lastly, your final contention that the rest of Friedman's talk, was mere fantasy needs explanation. I saw nothing of the kind and found it very much meshing with actual history, so if you would like to flesh out your issue, I would be curious to see what exactly you are referring to.
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