Comments by "K `" (@user-jt3dw6vv4x) on "VICE"
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@AngryKittens Yes you are absolutely correct correct but Indo-European is a language family, it's not a race. Race is a social construct anyway. There are "East Asian" looking people in South Asia whose native language is Indo-European. There are "South Asian" looking people in South Asia and Myanmar who speak Sino-Tibetan languages. In the case of South Asia, this does not make sense. I know what you're talking about, you're talking about the Steppe pastoralists who brought Indo-European languages and understand what you're saying but the case of South Asia is very different because miscegenation has occurred ever since the first humans settled in the region. I wouldn't call it "Indo-European" either but Steppe ancestry.
Dravidian speakers are not the first inhabitants of South Asia. They seem to have emerged from the IVC. The first inhabitants of South Asia are the AASI and they are related to East Asians, Southeast Asians and Aboriginal Australians. It's tribal groups in South Asia that have the highest levels of this AASI ancestry out of all South Asians, not the large Dravidian-speaking groups (Tamils, Telugu etc.). The AASI emerged from one of the earliest waves of humans out of Africa. This ancestral Asian population settled in South Asia and genetically split into three populations: AASI, ESEA of E/SE Asia and AA of Australasia. All of these groups are related to one another and consequently share varying degrees of affinity to an early modern human known as Tianyuan Man. Source: "A genetic history of migration, diversification, and admixture in Asia" - Melinda A. Yang, 2022
Nagas are like other South Asians. Everybody is a descendant of various migrations into the region that mixed together. The dominant ancestral component of the Nagas is known as Ancestral Tibeto-Burman (ATB), while small amounts of their DNA comes from mainland India much like the Meitei and Chakma.
What I was trying to say is that not all South Asians speak Indo-European languages and genetically, the "Indo-European" component you speak of (which I call Steppe ancestry) is not the dominant component of any South Asian population that speaks an Indo-European language. The dominant ancestral component of most South Asians is Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC)-related ancestry, which is older than Steppe ancestry. IVC ancestry is predominantly made up of West Eurasian Neolithic farmer ancestry from what is now known as Iran (87%) with smaller amounts of Southeast Asian hunter-gatherer ancestry (13%) - related to that first wave f humans out of Africa. Source: "An Ancient Harappan Genome Lacks Ancestry from Steppe Pastoralists or Iranian Farmers" - Vasant Shinde et al. 2019 The IVC is also suggested to be the home of Dravidian languages.
Yes, the case of Singapore is like any other area after the Era of Exploration, yes most Singaporeans speak an Indo-European language despite ethnically being Chinese, Malay, Tamil etc.
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@AngryKittens Sorry but it's not a vague term, it's the actual term used in academics. Everybody is termed based on position in human evolution: pastoralists, hunter-gatherers, farmers etc. There is nothing vague about it. So, for example, when geneticists describe the genetic landscape of South Asia, they will say South Asians are descendants of indigenous ancient hunter-gatherers known as AASI and subsequent waves of exogenous Neolithic farmers, Steppe pastoralists and/or Austroasiatic-speaking and Tibeto-Burman-speaking farmers. These terms are used to illustrate the type of technology that developed within a civilisation over time. So, for example, with rice cultivation in South Asia we know that rice was cultivated in the IVC because that was a farmer-based society and we know that Austroasiatic speaking farmers who settled in South Asia from the east also brought agrarian practices with them, introducing a new form of rice cultivation to the region. Same thing with Steppe pastoralists and the AASI were obviously less developed, due to their early origins, having been a hunter-gatherer-based society.
Well Islander Southeast Asians are close to East Asians genetically. The idea that they're far apart is incorrect. It is generally understood that Austroasiatic-speaking farmers were present across a much larger land coverage of Southeast Asia (all the way into western Indonesia) and genetically speaking, Island Southeast Asians are close to East Asians. Both groups carry Basal East Asian DNA. This is why among all groups in Asia and the Pacific that carry some degree of East Eurasian/Eastern Non-African DNA, it is the ESEA (East/Southeast Asian) groups and Native Americans (who predominantly descend from a Basal East Asian lineage) that have the highest genetic affinity to Tianyuan Man (a Basal East Asian from northern China). If you look at all of the other groups in the world that have affinity to Tianyuan Man (Australians, Melanesians, South Asians, Central Asians, Maori, Romani), they are further away in genetic distance. So this idea that Islander Southeast Asians are not closely related to East Asians is incorrect. We already know, from studies dating back decades, that East and Southeast Asians are closely related. Both regions are in proximity to each other and it's understandable that genetic influence from various groups associated with East Asian-related DNA, would have impacted Island Southeast Asia to a great extent unlike Polynesia which is further away. Yes there is a genetic connection between Island Southeast Asians and Austronesian-speakers in the Pacific but that doesn't erase the fact that the closest genetic relation these populations have is with the rest of Southeast Asia and East Asia. All of these populations carry Basal East Asian DNA. Polynesians and Micronesians are also part of this same lineage albeit having split earlier. They're all descendants of ESEA aka East Asian-related lineages. Same thing with Indo-European-speaking South Asians, they all have Steppe ancestry but their dominant genetic component is IVC ancestry which is why they're comparatively closer to Iranian-speaking populations of Central and West Asia than to Europeans on a PCA plot.
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@AngryKittens The reality for most North Indians is that their main genetic base is not Steppe ancestry. Many love to hype up their claims of proximity to Europeans while deriding Adivasi tribals and low caste Indians who are comparatively closer to eastern Asian populations. Only the northwestern populations like Punjabis, Kashmiris and various groups in that region have a dominant base of Steppe ancestry. The rest of North India is largely a blend of IVC and Steppe ancestry. They idolise sharp (Eurocentric) features like high bridged nose whilst deriding neotenous features (flat noses, flat face etc.) and this is why you shouldn't be generalising to begin with. By generalising the whole of South Asia through the eyes of North India you're suggesting the default for South Asia is North Indian Indo-European-speaking people (which is literally what North Indian nationalists claim to be reality) and that's not reality. If there was any sort of "default" population then it would be the Adivasi tribes (dark skinned people with flat noses, flat faces etc.) found across South Asia from south India to Bhutan.
If you're suggesting North Indians to be specific are the closest cousins of Europeans, that is not true. It's actually West Asians who are the closest cousins to Europeans. Both groups are of basal West Eurasian origin.
Yeah Basal Asian is basically that large ancestral population that gave rise to the ESEA, AA and AASI populations of East, Southeast, South, Central Asia, the Pacific and Americas. It's ancient and their strongest affinity in modern humans is in various parts of South Asia, Island Southeast Asia and Australasia (especially Papua New Guinea).
I agree with everything you're saying about Austronesian-speaking peoples but that does not change the fact that Island SEA populations don't share strong genetic ties with East Asia.
I don't understand why you're focusing so much on the concept of "Asian" as understood by Americans. Nobody in Asia thinks of "Asian" as a race or something. It's just a demonym and a secondary thought for people that are actually living in Asia. So why should it matter what Americans think when they're not the ones living in Asia and are not aware of the serious cultural and genetic overlap that Asian populations share with other continents? In the US, they transformed "Asian" into some sort of racial, pan-ethnicity, pan-cultural identity due to racial politics. Asian, in its most basic and original form, is just a demonym and at its greatest extent it's just a cultural term. Why do I say it's cultural because Imperial Japan used "Asian" in a cultural context to refer to the areas of Asia culturally influenced by Indian and Chinese culture. This is why Japan tried to create Greater East Asia, a concept rooted in their own historical idea of Asia known as "Sangoku" (Three Kingdoms of China, India and Japan). Additionally, the whole concept of pan-Asianism has been rooted in culture (take for example Lee Kuan Yew's Asian Values ideology). The term, "Asian" has never been associated with genetics or appearance in the way it has been altered to mean in the US and other countries outside of Asia. The US has its own terminology because everything is centred around "race". It's the way things are for them.
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