Comments by "doveton sturdee" (@dovetonsturdee7033) on "The REAL Reason why Hitler HAD to start WW2" video.
-
1
-
I think you will that very few people believe that Hitler declared war on Britain, France, or Poland. They simply assume, correctly, that he invaded Poland without any formal declaration, as he had previously done in Czechoslovakia. Britain and France, through appeasement, had made serious efforts to avoid a major European war, but a line had to be drawn somewhere, and it was over Poland. If France had seriously sought war with Germany, why build the defensive Maginot Line, and the size of the Royal Navy was irrelevant in terms of the land campaign.
Unconditional Surrender, by the way, was demanded by FDR, and actually came as a surprise to Churchill. As to why the British and French failed to declare war on the Soviet Union, have you really not heard of Realpolitik?
1
-
1
-
1
-
@albertdevries7769 Because Britain's treaty with Poland agreed support in the event of invasion by Germany, but not in the event of invasion by any other power.
I don't care whether you think my comment correct or not, as I know that it is.
You might perhaps explain why Hitler managed to attack Czechoslovakia, Poland, Denmark, Norway, Luxembourg, The Netherlands, Belgium, The United States, and the Soviet Union, whilst only declaring war on one of them, and when none of them had declared war on Germany?
1