Comments by "adamnesico" (@adamnesico) on "How Disgust Drives Society, History and the Right" video.
-
2
-
2
-
2
-
2
-
2
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
1
-
@sonofuniverse6355 Ive given you a lot of proofs, that you are too dumb and fanaticd to underrstand or accept them is your problem.
There is no proof of iranians following vedas or hinduism, and that certain words who design divine beings good and bad have reversed moral between iranians and hindus seems to suggest aryans separated between iranians and indoaryans due to a religious schism.
Rigveda too says that the aryans conquered the 10000 cities of the dasa and defeated the lingam worshipers.
How apears the river? Why not? The final version of the rigveda was undoubtly composed in India.
There was no Sparta in the troyan war, but the Iliad mention Sparta because it existed in Homers time.
Thats self-delusion, a migration performed by violent people always end becoming a invasion, and more when the invaders are far more men than women, as genetics show.
Yes, 2 can form.
But think as an explosion.
The aryan expansion would have eaten the dravidians if they would have formed in India.
Kurgan origin is more plausible, it occupies a central position in the yamnaya expansion and archaeology and genetics support the palce as the beginning.
Sorry, but ur linguistic theory can be easily unproven.
North India is a land of farmers, the true comercial zone is the dravidian, and they haven't changed their language due to their stronge commerce.
Indus valley remains show more similarity to the dravidians, so, the dravidians are the original indians, the northern ones are the mixed with the europeans, as ther anguage and culture shows.
1
-
@sonofuniverse6355 1 Original name of Iran= Iranshar> Aryan kingdom.
Yes, word isnt exactly aryan, but as it means too noble and pure and its similar, clearly point to a same origin.
2 I havent read rigveda, but in internet you can search those words I said.
I know that.
Misterious, still, its possible that an aryan traveler saw the sarawasti be4 the invasion. Indus civ had colonies over aryan lands.
3 Because those sites were abandoned due to the decadence of the indus civ, that same decadence produced the invasion, as the civ wasnt strong anymore for content the barbarians in the frontiers.
Thats like say that find no remains of destruction by the spanish in the classic mayan cities proofs that there was no spanish invasion of mesoamerica.
The sites described in the rigveda dont resemble indus civ cities, those were already empty.
I dont know any archaeologic remain who proofs the celt invasions, but we know they happened because its impossible that such a warlike people traveled without invade.
All yamnaya peoples were highly warlike.
4 Ye, there are sanskrit words due to be under same culture, but those languages are so diferent that linguists classify them as diferent.
That now you use english words for new thigns doesnt mean now your langauge is english.
Learn linguistics.
I dont know exactly where they originated, but its evident that the dravidian is the indian native linguistic group, and looks obvius that the indus civ too spoke dravidian.
1
-
@sonofuniverse6355 Tell me, you know archaeologic evidence of all the historic invasions of India?
And you gonna say me then than none of those happened?
Assumptions? You are the one assuming that steppe people were peaceul and then suddenly became extremely aggressive for no reason.
Dont blame others of do the same as u.
You use migration because you refuse to accept your essence is mixed and comes from an european coquiest. As I said migration done by violent peoples= Invasion.
Aryans existed at the same time as saravasti and we know indic civ had colonies over them, so why do you think aryans had never seen the saravasti be4 conquer India?
They needed an invasion for conquer the people who existed there.
You think only civiliced people resist invaders?
Do you think when a civ colapses its inhabitatns disapear?
You are the one making extremely fool assumptions.
I dont know. As I told you, how many signs of the persian, macedonian, scythian, kushan, arab, turk, afgan, english....
Or of the roman, assyrian, spanish, celtic, hun... invasions you know? Are you gonna say me none of those were invasions?
I simply assume aryans behaved like any other else did after them.
You are assuming they behaved diferent for no reason.You must give a reason.
Yes, I know that there is aryan dna in both but less in the south.
Iranshar= Noble kingdom
Aryavarta= Noble land.
Pakistan= Pure land
Arent the concepts of nobility and purity related?
You dont see the relation because you dont want to.
So if the religion is what really matters, wich problem do you have in accepting just another invasion more in your long history of invasions?
Your religion is national, see how the aryan gods soon stopped being worshipped, in the end the indians assimilated religiously the aryans, as they did with all invaders, except with muslims and english.
1
-
1
-
@sonofuniverse6355 They got attacked? What do you mean?
War is never in just one direction, there is always mutual violence.
When a people arrive to a new place and conquer it, thats an invasion.
Again, you aare the worst type of blind, the one who refuses to see.
Who are the main gods in hinduism?
Brahma, Vishnu, and Shiva, the creator, the conservator and the destroyer, right?
Wich is the main god in rigveda?
Indra, the sky father.
Wich is the equivalent of greek Zeus or turkic Tengri.
Hes a steppe god.
And you know the best one?
Aryan>Diaus Pitar
Rome>Deus Pater
They bringed new gods, its proved.
But in the end, the local gods prevailed.
1
-
1
-
1