Comments by "" (@tomk3732) on "The Armchair Historian"
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But was Vichy France axis power? They "collaborated" in same way neutral countries did - they supplied resources and materials. They did far more as far as Jews and others are concerned BUT was it really Nazi German "heavy influence" or simply anti Jewish views that exploded in Europe in late 1930s? Imagine that anti-Semitism even exploded in Poland, most friendly to Jews nation. BUT they did not send military force, same as Hungary and Italy for example. Sure they had volunteers - quite many, but not as much per capita as others, such as Baltic nations or territory that was claimed as "Ukraine". Their refusal to join "free French" only underscores their neutrality - which of course was "questionable" - but so was neutrality of say USA. Sure, they were dependent on Germany and a puppet - but nothing more. In historical retrospect the decision was 100% correct - fighting to bitter end and heavily resisting like the Poles did cost millions of lives and huge destruction for no benefit at all then maybe "bragging rights". The French with their luck of resistance and passive acceptance may not be seen today as warriors (at least by older generation) BUT they did save their capital and they suffered light civilian losses. Also today they can, through use of propaganda, rehabilitate themselves.
As to the British, they did as US does today - only care for themselves. They used their allies not to these allies advantage but only to their own. So sinking of the French fleet was good idea only for the British. As history shows it was a bad move as no French ships did in fact join German navy - i.e. British worries were proven false.
Did Americans wanted the Jews??? Well, gee, I remember that certain ships heading for NA before WWII started with Jews were not allowed...
Once Germans walked into Vichy France it was government in name only.
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