Comments by "John Brereton" (@johnbrereton5229) on "" video.

Scottish law is different to English law and in England slavery itself was banned in the 12th century. Though Serfdom continued until the peasants revolt in 1381. In 1770s an American slave called Somerset escaped from a ship bound for Jamaica and sought help by Granville Sharp an abolitionist. It went to court and Somerset's 'owners' claimed that Somerset was a slave by the laws of Virginia and Jamaica. However, Lord Mansfield judged that though this may be the case Somerset was now in England under Englush law, and under English law their was no authority for slavery, therefore when Somerset set foot on English soil he became emancipated and so was now a free man. Scottish law is still seperate and different to English law even today.
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@thehound9638 The union was formed after the death of Elizabeth I when King James VI of Scotland rode down to London unopposed and was crowned King James I of England and united the two countries under one crown. He was also the first to declare himself King of Great Britain as he was now the King of the whole of the largest island, or greatest, of the British isles. Therefore, it was the Scots who are responsible for our unification, not the English, as Scottish Nationalist like to claim.
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@donquixote3927 I wouldnt say just a personal union, it was more a union of crowns. After the death of Elizabeth 1st in 1603 James assumed the crowns of the whole British isles, his native Scotland, England and Wales as well as Ireland. In 1606- 1667 and 1689 James tried to bring them into one politically united kingdom with one Parliament. However, it wasnt until 1707 that the Act of Union was finally passed and created the United Kingdom of Great Britain.
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@donquixote3927 Sorry to be pedantic, but where did the Hound say that? 1707 was when they where official joined, but in affect they had been joined 100 years earlier by the union of crowns. You can't really be that seperate if you are ruled by the same King under one crown. But in anycase we can both agree that after 1707 the union is indisputable.
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The feudal system ended in England after the Peasants revolt in 1389 and slavery was banned way back in the 12th century.
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@skadiwarrior2053 In the 14th century there were many grievances within the peasant classes. The black death and taxes to fund the 100 year war were others and it was these tax collections that was the catalysts that finally ignited the Peasants revolt. Their major demands were to end to these taxes and fuedal serfdom which were eventually granted.
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