Comments by "Laurence Fraser" (@laurencefraser) on "RobWords"
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For all that a decent amount of French entered English with the Norman invasion, the vast bulk of it (and of the Latin you'll find there also, that part that hadn't already entered long since via the church, or Roman influence on the Germanic peoples) showed up in later centuries when French was the language of the nobility from one end of Europe to the other, and thus a 'prestige' language that people used to show off how fancy they were (as well as being quite useful if one was traveling). Likewise much of the Latin comes from scientific endevours, where a combination of the prominence of religious institutions in early scientific advancement and the need for a common language (and it's nature as a mostly 'dead' language offering quite a lot of advantages in this role) saw it become another prestige language, showing off one's education and (pretense to) intellect.
I can't help but imagine that the result would be less the loss of long, complicated words that are clearly thought of as French or Latin in origin today, and more the loss of the simple, basic ones people don't think about much, such as 'beef' and the like.
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Well, when you account for the fact that quite a few of them are merely new Derivative Forms, rather than Entirely new words, nor new, contextually clear, usages for existing words, and then you realise that all of them are spread out over 40-ish works so the audience isn't running into them all at once...
And then, yes, all the words where they're new in the sense that it's the first time they appear in texts that survived long enough for anyone to make record of them rather than the first time they were ever used at all mitigates the issue still further.
Also, a large part of how incomprehensible so many people today find Shakespere (though certainly not the Entirity of it!) has more to do with their poor skills in Present Day English, even before getting into compensating for a couple of centuries of linguistic drift. ... That and the fact that it's all written in Script format, intended to be read aloud and Heard, not to mention written largely as poetry which further doubles down on that, so trying to understand it just from silently reading the text, rather than properly Performing it, is something of a struggle.
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It is worth pointing out that, if you're not going to elaborate, you Should respond to negative questions in English in the same way: Yes for the speaker's statement being correct, and no for it being incorrect.
Mind you, it is generally considered better to elaborate to avoid confusion, and when you do that the yes/no element behaves differently (I forget the explaination for what's actually going on there), and the rest of what you say is the acutal answer.
Of course, if you're somewhat aware of the grammar and reasonably considerate of others you also avoid asking quesitons in the negative in the first place when speaking English, because most people are sufficiently ignnorant about such matters that they will not respond in line with the above, and you will be left with no idea what they actually meant and have to ask for further clarification, restating the question and getting them to restate the answer, causing further confusion and delay, so it's best avoided in general.
Not that one is taught any of this, generally. In fact, in primary school we were actively taught to ask questions in the negative and other such tricks so as to force the other party to actually give more than single word answers or the like, the idea being that it facilitated conversation (a blunt 'yes' or 'no' will cause a conversation to stall out because it leaves the other party with nothing to respond to.) ... which is great when the idea is to keep a conversation going, not so much when you want useful and actionable information so you can get on with things.
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@adamcetinkent See, your problem there is your willingness or not to accept a thing which exists.
It is an informal register of a specific dialect.
Now, it may not be apropriate or sensible to use a given register and/or dialect in a given context (and those who insist that we should not teach children how to speak a standard dialect and formal register As Well As their local dialect, the informal register they use with their ingroups, and whatever technical dialect they end up picking up from their education and employment, are best ignored (for want of willingness to put in the effort of writing multiple extra paragraphs on the matter), but that's an entirely different matter from rejecting them as valid in the correct context.
The issue isn't that people can, and do, use slang or various dialects among the appropriate ingroup. It's the people who are incapable of speaking in more standard and formal registers than needed (and those who would suppress attempts to impart this skill to them) as it makes it much more difficult for them to communicate with others, and thus to actually represent their interests when those Outside their ingroup get involved. (which is to say, refusing to actually teach proper standard dialect and formal register can be just as effective a tool at suppressing a group as actually supressing their langauge/dialect/whatever. Arguably more effective if you're willing to play the long game.)
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English does, in fact, have rules, at least as much as any language does.
Unfortunately, we Also have many decades, possibly even centuries, of tradition of teaching utter nonsense instead of the actual rules of the actual language.
A few decades back people who actually knew what they were talking about realised this and, having gathered enough evidence to prove it, convinced the educational systems in much of the English speaking world to basically toss the lot, keeping only a very few provable useful basics while they spent several more decades nailing down the Actual rules and, with much more difficulty, the best way to go about teaching them.
From what I hear, many American schools kept right on teaching what amounted to half remembered fragments of style guides which weren't great at their intended role (One of the most popular of which is infamous for violating its own rules in the text describing them, or in text used as an example of how to correctly follow a different rule) of allowing one to pretend that one could pass for a member of the upper classes when they were published many decades before, nevermind teach children basic langauge skills in the class room.
I'm not sure on the current state of the project to create an actually Useful ciriculum teaching English as it actually works, though to my understanding there has been progress made.
I have a book from the time when such things came with a second copy of the same work on CD (to facilitate the use of a search engine and other useful tools) that's almost a thousand pages long that is an actual structured and accurate reference guide to, well, basically English Grammar, based on how people actually speak (at least when speaking the more standard dialects).
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@berryesseen ... For reference, the V and W sounds are so imediately and obviously different to speakers of most English dialects that the inability to make the distinction was traditionally seen as a speech imediment (or an overly pretentious affectation, depending on what was going on in the upper classes at the time), if less so than people who were unable to distinguish R from W.
For added bonus points, W is decidedly non-standard in how one forms the sound. Phonetically it doesn't actually even fit on the consonant table properly, because the table has 'how is the airflow obstructed' on one axis and 'how far back, forward in the mouth is the airflow obstructed' on the other... and W (and a very small subset of globally MUCH rarer other sounds) is formed by obstructing the airflow in two places at once. Neither of which are the same point at which it is obstructed to form a V.
V is the voiced form of F. F and W sounds have nothing in common, and the only thing that V and W have in common (voicing, that is, vibrating the vocal cords) they also share with B,D,G,Z,J, and several others.
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@mymo_in_Bb Scrapping C entirely is a bad idea indeed, yes. But there's a solid argument for using it only where we currently use ch, and then actually writing z rather than s where z is meant and s rather than c when s is meant.
Whether it's actually worth the effort or not is a different story, of course.
As for G... well, it's worse and more easily solved, as half the time it's g as it shoudl be, and the other half it is j... though I'm sure this would then occasionally cause ambiguity with j, given it is sometimes read as y... quite a bit less though (mostly in foreign words that have resisted anglicisation for lack of common use).
Q is an interesting one. It actually makes a different sound from k... but that there is no k/q minimal pair in English (save for foreign proper nouns). English speakers mostly can't actually pronounce a k sound in the places where we write q... but also can't pronunce a q sound in the places where we write k (again, mostly)... but also mostly can't tell the difference between the two sounds (which have different IPA characters, mind you), and don't enounciate the distinction particularly well.
Which is to say there's a perfectly reasonable argument regarding why Q is there... but also an argument at least as solid that it's existence is pointless and we should get rid of it.
As always, the main issue is less the change itself, and more that the prople proposing it don't know about and/or understand the knock on effects and have thus put no effort into handling the consequences there-of.
(sort of like the various ideologically corrupted twits who keep insisting on trying to force changes to how others speak in the (incorrect) belief that it will somehow advance the cause of their ideology... but can't be arsed to understand how the language actually works Before their change and consequently just cause problems for everyone that mostly serve to create opposition to their goals where none previously existed).
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@nolongerlistless English only actually has one pair of words where the difference between voiced and unvoiced th makes any difference: "thigh and thy". And the latter of the two is an archaic second person possessive pronoun that no one actually uses except for humour value or to sound 'fancy' (which tends to backfire as it's almost never used correctly) or when quoting the bible or Shakespere... and even then only certain, old, translations of the bible.
And at this point Shakespere is basically incomprehensible to most people without translation anyway, far too many of the words have long since fallen out of use, just to start with.
In all other contexts, while using the wrong reading of TH will make you sound odd, it's still perfectly comprehensible and causes no confusion... Exactly the same as L, which English also actually has two sounds for (which way you pronunce it is dictated by where it is in the word), but it doesn't even have an equivalent to the thy/thigh contrast, so no one ever considers that relevant... except speakers of other langues that either only use one L sound consistently or actually DO contrast the two sounds, to whom that particular quirk showing up when someone is speaking their langauge is a pretty big sign that the speaker's native langauge is English.
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The answer is that Japanese doesn't have an L, and has a very different R from English's R...
Japanese R is formed in a manner very close to (but not the same as) English D (it doesn't sound like one, exactly, but it also doesn't sound like an English R, really)... It is Not the same sound as English R, but it IS the closest sound Japanese has to an English L.
It's a bit of a mess but basically?
Japanese has an R, it doesn't have an L. Most Japanese speakers struggle to hear the difference between English L and English R. So depending on what they're doing, they'll either write 'r' regardless (if its intended for other Japanese speakers to be able to easily read and say it), more make a best attempt at the correct one (if actually trying to speak English) with highly mixed results if they know which one it's supposed to be... or if they Don't know which one it's supposed to be (having not seen the word written down and, remember, quite possibly not being able to hear the distinction), just flat out Guessing.
(for reference, there are a lot of native English speakers who, for various reasons, just flat out can't hear the difference between 'th' and 'f' (or the Other 'th' and 'v'). Sometimes due to hearing problems, sometimes just because they grew up in an area where the distinction Doesn't Exist and so never learned to hear the distinction (you'd think television would help on that front, but apparently not?). You get quite similar results. Likewise English speakers trying to learn languages with meaningful tone distinctions.)
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