Comments by "Ikenga Spirit" (@ikengaspirit3063) on "Did Vikings Establish Rus'? The Norman Controversy" video.

  1. 0:24 Wait, like the medieval rus called their language slavonic?.
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  2. I say from the story, Slavic state formation was clearly already established before Rurik and that from ibn fadlan's account these were more than even the 3 metioned by the account of the primary chronicle. I think initially, the external influence was steppe, first Iranian then Turko-Mongol, that's why there's one mention of a Rus Khan. Where was this Rus Khanate tho is another question. And Rurik came after all of that and largely re-enegized the slavic tradition than increase the Turko-Mongol or introduce a Norman influence. Also, the whole it is fake cuz it kinda resembles Genesis is very weak. Books have a structure and need a structure, especially when you can't backspace. Someone selecting a popular book to be their structure is the norm not the exception, like every academic stuff follows the structure of a previous book. Secondly, it doesn't even parallel, how is ham, shem and japeth scattering around the world to found new peoples in away way mirror the varag being expulled and 3 of their sons returning to rule the slavs and then one inheriting the whole thing?. Because there were 2 brothers?. What next? any story with a single son as the leading character is therefore a copy of the rise of Taizong?. Maybe its just a meme that developed some indeterminate time in Christian Europe.
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