Comments by "Bảo Nguyễn Xuân Thái" (@baonguyenxuanthai711) on "Alexander Grace" channel.

  1.  @LogicalMuzikmixer  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    4
  2.  @Sapanator  That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    3
  3.  @dr7143  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    2
  4. 3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    2
  5. That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    2
  6. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    2
  7.  @Yomel123  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    2
  8. Those studies shown at the beginning of the video were done by the Institute of Family Studies. Which is a conservative Christian organisation , so I as a feminist would be very suspicious of any findings they came up with.
    1
  9. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  10. That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    1
  11. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  12. That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    1
  13. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  14.  @Sapanator  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  15. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  16.  @wyleecoyotee4252  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  17.  @nunnaza  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  18. That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    1
  19. 3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    1
  20. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  21. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  22.  @Sapanator  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  23.  @haselbasil2488  3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    1
  24.  @haselbasil2488  i agree with this 100%
    1
  25.  @loganblackwood2922  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  26. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  27.  @skc9917  That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    1
  28.  @WoodmanTiller  3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    1
  29.  @praful1328  3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    1
  30.  @thenarrator1984  3:20 I'm sorry but this graph is complete BS. It doesnt show how many women/men are in each of the "how many partners" groups, this could explain why it goes up after 4 partners then down and then up again. It is also obvious that you are more happy if you only ever had one partner, because you dont have any comparison to another relationship. It would also be important to know how the question was phrased...if it was just like "Are you happy in your marriage?" then there is no correlation to the number of partners they had, because the reason for their unhappiness in the moment they were asked could be anything
    1
  31.  @wyleecoyotee4252  That graph at the beginning about the chance of divorce after 5 years doesn't hold much water. The graph doesn't even have a consistent increase with the number of partners. Hell, the chance of divorce is higher with 2 partners than 6-9 partners according to this. Alexander talks about this graph as if there is an exponential increase in chance of divorce with an increase in partners. The difference between 2 partners and 10 + is about 4%..........4%. Don't act like this is a big difference.
    1
  32. Human minds have evolved to overcome instincts. Blaming women for being able to overcome some kind of "sex fear instinct" is backwards. There are contraceptives today. Sexual emancipation is important for overcoming the gender imbalances in whatever field. The reason is we are no animals anymore. It's great to not be limited by biological constraints. And these will be lifted with technological advancements.
    1
  33. First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1
  34.  @maidende8280  First study (By Family Studies): shows a drop from 73% to about 65% if you have 2 other partners prior to marriage, but then essentially stays at that level through up to 10 previous partners. But what does that prove since the vast majority of men AND women in western society have had sex with multiple partners by the time they married AND marriages NOW are taking place much later. So, did this study control for the age of the women? Did the study control for religiosity since women marrying with no previous sex partners may have had arranged marriages. I'm not convinced at all (from the graph alone) that the study methodology is convincing that there is a difference between no pre-marital partners and TEN pre-marital partners. :). Looking at the second study (Family Study; 5 year prediction of divorce by number of people spouses slept with prior to marriage). I'm in the biz of sociology/psychology so am reasonably familiar with research. I don't have the actual study in front of me, but the graph alone is problematic. Notice how you go from 5% chance of divorce if 0 previous partners jumping to 20% if 1 previous partner, then 30% if 2 previous partners, but then after that, an actual drop off to 25% if you've had 10 or more partners pre-marriage! So if pre-marital sex with others is a factor there should be a consistent rise on the x/y axes (if 1-2 makes a difference, then even more should make more difference). But that's not shown here, so I'm not convinced that this study has proven anything.
    1