Youtube comments of Sasha S (@sashas3362).
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@ieatchicharronforbreakfast1747 After a quick review of the relevant laws I was reminded it wasn't only child porn which section 230 allowed social media platforms to censor without incurring liability as publishers. It was intended to allow censorship of any illegal content or any content which might be obscene or harmful to a child ranging from copyright violations, defamatory slander, harrasment, porn, etc. When section 230 was originally passed it was a subsection of some larger law called the Communications Decency Act (CDA). The CDA was title V of the Telecom Act of 199 (note: the non-discrimination rule in Title I of the Telecom Act of 1996 is the basis of "net neutrality", if I remember correctly). The CDA made all online pornography illegal until it was struck down. If I understand correctly, the only part of the CDA which remains is section 230 which remains as part of the Telecommunications Act of 1996. After the court struck down the censorship of all online pornography allowed by the CDA the only content which social media platforms and other online service providers which host 3rd party content can censor without incurring liability as a publisher for any 3rd party content appearing on their platform is illegal content such as defamatory/slanderous content, harassment, threats, child porn and and/or content which could be harmful to a child such as cyberbullying or encouraging suicide among others as specified by section 230. Censoring any other content falls outside the intent of section 230 and would incur liability as a publisher. IMO this would apply to any webpage which allows 3rd parties to post comments or other content. This could be a facebook page or the comments section of a youtube video. The only censorship which would be allowed without incurring liability as a publisher would be censoring illegal content. All other content must be allowed without any censorship. For some reason this was not clear to many people. Trump's EO seems to make this clear. It will be interesting to see how courts will react to this EO. Especially in light of the fact that the FCC's 2015 net neutrality laws have been overturned. It seems to me that net neutrality repeal only applies to ISP's (under the non-discrimination rule of title 1 of the Telecom Act of 1996). Other online service providers such as social media platforms are still obligated to maintain neutrality, except when they may otherwise become an accomplice to a crime, as outlined by section 230 or title V of the Telecommunications Act of 1996. If you ask me, even in such cases where social media platforms and other online service providers hosting 3rd party content may find themselves becoming host to criminal activity they should be limited to notifying the authorities and removing content only when ordered to do so by the authorities (preferably by a court). Otherwise, evidence could be deleted or content wrongly accused of being illegal could be censored. All IMO, of course.
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Joseph Davidson What's YOUR problem? Did I offend you somehow by pointing out how stupid it is to pay insecure centralised ISP's to surveil and censor when there are secure (hacker, surveillance, and censor resistant) decentralized alternatives which are either FREE or will PAY you to use them? If so, sorry, but I'm just saying maybe this is what it takes to get people to stop depending on untrustworthy centralized service providers. When people use centralized technologies it poses a threat to me and everyone else so I have every right to feel frustrated and outraged by people who continue to uphold centralized technologies when better alternatives are available.
The same applies for businesses which store confidential customer data on the pre-installed windows or apple operating systems (which make computers expensive) instead of the hack proof alternatives such as CertiKOS, VMS, OpenVMS, QubesOS, etc. Because these businesses refuse to use these more secure technologies, they should be held accountable whenever customer data gets stolen by hackers instead of being allowed to blame the hackers. I'd say these are inside jobs and the hacks deliberately allowed to happen if I didn't believe people could be so stupid and lazy. After all, I find it hard to believe their IT people don't know about the better alternatives I mention here.
Alas, I don't blame the general public for not using these more secure alternatives. I'm sure they would use them if they were properly promoted so that more people knew about them and they were made easier to use.
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@germanrud9904 Stop typing walls if text? Is this geting too complex for you? Can't keep up? Perhaps you should leave the debate to experts then.
BTW, intersex isn't nonsense. It's very real. What's nonsense is the belief that there are only two genders and sexes (male and female or masculine and feminine). The fact is there is (at least) a 3rd sex/gender, which we call "intersex". This includes the hermaphrodites, both true hermaphrodites and pseudohermaphrodites but also includes people who have various genetic cinditions such as klinefelters syndrome which affect their hormonal sex.
You see, sex isn't determined by a single trait but rather by weighing multiple traits, specifically, genetic sex, chronosomal sex, hormonal sex, anatomical sex, and gender identity. Gender identity is the most important factor because doctors don't have a right to decide what sex an intersex person (such as emily in the above tedx video should be). You see, doctors are still surgically mutilating beautiful and perfect intersex babies to make their bodues conform with people's unrealistic belief that there should only be 2 sexes, male and female. They do this to give them the best possible chance at a normal life in a society which would otherwise consider them freaks. They also do it because this gives them an excuse to sterilise these children and prevent them from passing along their hermaphrodite genes.
But guess what? Despite their best efforts, including encouraging the abortion of foetuses testing positive for the hermaphrodite genes (which they usually only describe to the parents as a genetic "disease" rather than a natural variation) hermaphrodites are still here and may even be a majority. Up to 60% of the population perhaps. Intersex people are a victim of very real eugenics and genocide. This must end. It is illegal. Intersex must be recognized as a natural variation before humans start playing god with gene editing technologies such as CRISPR to erase intersex people from existence by creating designer babies which conform with their delusional belief that there should only be the typical male and female and all else is a deformity and an abomination.
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@meekinheritor2171 Get real! Where is the undeniable PROOF trump is to blame for these recent poisonings? You and the fake news are the ones linking the coincidence of an uptick in calls to the poison control center to trump's use of the word "disinfectant" in last thursday's white house coronavirus briefing...like conspiracy theorists! It's a classic feature of conspiracy theorists to link two events for which there is no proof they are related and portray them as somehow related. The fake news' HYPOTHESIS is no better than my "theory"!
And wasn't it revealed the couple who drank the fishtank disinfectant were trump haters? I'm just repeating what I've heard, what those who stay informed of what is being said online are saying. Try to keep up. You think trump doesn't know what people are saying about it? You think trump doesn't have access to the truth about who is poisoning themselves? In case you haven't noticed, he's the commander in chief which means he has access to the mass surveillance data gathered by big tech (google, etc), the NSA, CIA, etc. There should be no doubt trump knows what's going on, who his enemies are. When you take what I said into consideration then what trump said, about being "sarcastic" because he knew how the fake news would react, suddenly makes more sense, doesn't it? That alone should tell you I'm on the right track.
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@untamedpandasweg8986 I'm not sure exactly what you are trying to say when you say either gender is a social construct or biological sex matters. It appears the claim being made by scientists and doctors is that transgender people are transgender because they are actually intersexed in some way, perhaps neurologically (the brain being considered the most important sex organ). Furthermore, if you have the knowledge I have about sex/gender you would know that the definitions of male and female are not certain. We tend to believe the distinction is clear, that a female produces ova gets pregnant and either lays an egg or gives birth while a male produces sperm which fertilizes the ova. Right? But the fact is in some animals such as birds and even some mammals we find that what we call chromosomal males are the ones which produce the ova and the ones which are what we'd otherwise call chromosomal females produce the sperm and fertilize the ova. We call the chromosomal males "females" because we are using a definition of "male" as the sperm producer and the definition of "female" as ova producer. But if we use chromosomal sex to determine sex it could be argued that females originally were the sperm producers and males were the ova producers. Science teaches birds evolved from dinosaurs so it is possible the same applies to the ancient saurian ancestors of humans. If so, then that means somewhere along the way of evolving into mammals, either before or after the emergence of mammals, our ancient ancestors reversed sex the same way birds and reptiles sometimes do to produce XY males and XX females and these survived and/or reproduced more succesfully than their XX male and XY female ancestors did. Perhaps this is getting too complex for the average person but the fact is sex isn't some trait which can be easily measured or determined because it isn't determined by a single trait but rather by weighting several traits such as chromosomal sex, gonadal sex, anatomical sex, hormone levels, hormone sensitivity and response, sexual instinct/behavior, reproductive role, and (in the case of humans) gender identity. All of these factors combined play a role in determining whether we consider a creature male or female. When you fully understand the implications of this fact you will understand that the concept of biological sex is actually a social construct because how we define male or female is arbitrary. Do we define male or female based on the absence or presence of certain chromosomes, the absence or presence of certain genes, gonadal type, anatomy, or some other trait? Take your pick. Personally, I prefer to use genes (over chronosomes and other factors) but there are exogenous factors which can override genes causing a person whose genes dictate they should be a female to become a male or vice verse. But should we consider someone who is genetically female but born with male anatomy a female if they identify as male? No, in my opinion, we should not. Not even if it's discovered they have fertile ovaries in their nutsack because gender identity trumps all in my opinion. Only if they identify as a female (despite having an apparently male external anatomy) should we consider them a female. After all, biological sex is a social construct. However, I am inclined to believe if it's true jessica yaniv has ovaries or even ovotestis functioning as ovaries jessica has more of a right to access female only spaces, regardless of their appearance, than somebody who is what we consider male in every way (chromosomally, genetically, anatomically, hormonally) but self-identifies as a woman. But to be clear, I do believe people have a right to self-identify as the opposite sex (or both sexes or no sex at all). Yet, somebody whose gonadal sex is female and identifies as a female has more legitimacy as a female than somebody whose gonadal sex is male but identifies as a female. In other words, if its true jessica yaniv has ovaries, menstruates, and can get pregnant then it seems to me she has more of a right to use the ladies room than blaire white. Not to say blaire white has no right to use the ladies room. But if blaire white can use the ladies room then yaniv should also be allowed to use the ladies room. The fact that yaniv prefers women is irrelevant. Lesbians are equally entitled to use the ladies room, aren't they? It doesn't matter if yaniv proves to be a pedophile (which I doubt) because even convicted pedophiles registered as sex offenders are entitled to use public restrooms despite the fact that may put them in proximity to children (I should emphasize yaniv is neither a convicted pedophile nor registered sex offender). I find the abuse yaniv is enduring to be horrifying. It seems to me she is being abused because she is perceived by many be too "masculine" to be entitled to self-identify as female (primarily because she is sexually attracted to women). As if appearance is important where gender identity, or rather acceptance of one's gender identity, is concerned.
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@emmawillard1832 18 U.S. Code § 2384.Seditious conspiracy
If two or more persons in any State or Territory, or in any place subject to the jurisdiction of the United States, conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof, they shall each be fined under this title or imprisoned not more than twenty years, or both.
(June 25, 1948, ch. 645, 62 Stat. 808; July 24, 1956, ch. 678, § 1, 70 Stat. 623; Pub. L. 103–322, title XXXIII, § 330016(1)(N), Sept. 13, 1994, 108 Stat. 2148.)
https://www.law.cornell.edu/uscode/text/18/part-I/chapter-115
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@emmawillard1832 It took you that long to come up with that nonsensical response? Are you seriously arguing that sedition itself is not a crime but rather it is merely conspiring to commit sedition which is a crime? The definition of conspiracy is "to act in harmony toward a common end". Conspiracy itself is not a crime. Otherwise, conspiring to set up an "intervention" to convince an alcoholic to check into a detox and rehab center would be a crime. But such details aside, the fact is people did act in harmony to establish a police-free zone at the CHAZ and also in D.C. Their activities chased the police out and the activists worked together to keep the police out thereafter, did they not?
About your rebuttal to my pointing out that the united states gov continued to exist despite the the fact that the confederate states overthrew the federal government within their borders during the civil war of the 1800's, the law I cited doesn't say one must establish a new organized system of gov. It simply says one only need to "conspire to overthrow, put down, or to destroy by force the Government of the United States, or to levy war against them, or to oppose by force the authority thereof, or by force to prevent, hinder, or delay the execution of any law of the United States, or by force to seize, take, or possess any property of the United States contrary to the authority thereof".
The CHAZ activists established a police-free zone. That is overthrowing the gov and preventing, hindering, or delaying the execution of the law in that region. It's debateable whether the actions of the CHAZ activists were directed towards the "Government of the United States" or any "law of the United States". But the same cannot be said of the activists who created the autonomous police-free zone in Washington, D.C. Understand?
Now, I'm not an expert on law nor taking sides in this debate. I'm simply commenting on what I believe to be what the law says/means. This is all merely my opinion. I believe my opinion is the obvious interpretation of the facts anybody with common sense would arrive at. I'm simply saying I won't be surprised if the people responsible for establishing the CHAZ are convicted of sedition based on my understanding of what the law says. Ok?
Feel free to disagree and argue but there is no guarantee I will respond any further. I've said all I have to say at this point. I really don't have any desire to waste time arguing with fools.
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@emmawillard1832 "In a rational order: It took you this long to spew out a number of paragraphs of pure, unadulterated gobbledygook. Your Paragraph one: You wrote: "Conspiracy itself is not a crime." If conspiracy to commit sedition is not a crime, why is conspiracy to commit the substantive offense listed in the US Crimes Code?"
I didn't say conspiracy to commit sedition isn't a crime. Learn to read. I said conspiring (in general) itself is not a crime. Whether conspiring is a crime or not depends on what one is conspiring to do. If one is conspiring to commit sedition then that is a crime. But conspiring to throw a surprise birthday party for someone isn't a crime. So conspiring itself isn't a crime. Do I really need to explain that to you?
"Or were you completely confused by the very "research" you offered: a cite to the CRIME of conspiracy to commit a substantive crime, namely sedition, and not the substantive crime itself?"
It seems obvious to me that the substantive crime of sedition has been combined with conspiracy to commit sedition. I mean if somebody commits a seditious act they can be prosecuted for it under the seditious conspiracy law I cited. That law allows for prosecution of both actual seditious acts (which have been carried out) and also planned seditious acts (which have not been carried out) IMO. Understand?
"Can you read -- actually, can you comprehend simple words in English -- at a level higher than, say, middle school?"
Yes, I can. But apparently you can't. So I am no doubt wasting my time trying to communicate my thoughts with you.
" Where is anything like an intervention between family members or friends to assist in the health care of another identified as a crime in any state or under federal law.? Cite the provision."
I never said such an intervention is a crime! My point was that such a conspiracy would be an example of a conspiracy which is NOT a crime. I was trying to prove conspiracy itself is not a crime. Again, do I really need to explain this or are you really so foolish I need to explain this to you?
"Copy, cut and paste my comments or remarks where I asserted that sedition is not a crime. Come on now, Dearie, you're so good at research it will be easy for you in this list of comments where I specifically stated that sedition is not a crime. You offer the typical strawman argument: assert what you claim someone else said (but never said) and then beat it to death with a cudgel. Your strawman, having been destroyed, put up my comments where I asserted that sedition is not a crime. Be brave, now. Try to be a grown up who takes responsibility for the results of fingers on a keyboard. Can't find that text, can you? We all knew that. You're the only one who didn't. "
In an earlier reply from you dated Sept 25 2020 you wrote: "Got a cite to the US Code wherein a crime of attempted sedition is defined? I thought not".
"Get a new strawman: yours is a failure."
Are you talking to yourself now?
" Copying what you believe are relevant facts yet again proves only that you are "stuck" what you believe are relevant facts and have no comprehension of how those facts relevant or irrelevant to the application of the applicable law. We continue to note: I gave you a whole list of relevant queries and you are too lazy -- and too angry -- to address them. An exercise by which you might learn some now missing critical thinking skills if you were not so misguided by your own bias and prejudice. Your Paragraph Two. Now you want to talk about the substantive law of sedition but you haven't even bothered to cite a relevant provision. The provision of the US Code which you cited doesn't address the establishment of a new government after ouster of an old government because, Dearie, you cited the US Code provision for conspiracy and not the substantive law!"
There is no law against the substantive act of sedition which is still regarded as legally valid other than the one I cited that I know of. If you know of one feel free to correct me. Otherwise do not bother me again.
My understanding is all other laws in the US regarding sedition have been repealed or ruled to be unconstitutional (exveot for perhaps state, county, or city laws concerning sedition but I don't know of any such state laws). This doesn't mean sedition is no longer a crime though. It seems the substantive crime was merged with the law criminalizing the intent. Understand?
"Look up the word, "conspire" in any dictionary. You might learn something. Might, but I have little hope for improvement: you're so lost and wedded to your own bullshit you can't even put a cogent argument together with references to appropriate sources!"
LOL! I did look it up. I gave you a copied and posted quote of the definition for "conspire" in my last reply. Here is the definition again:
"to act in harmony toward a common end"
https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/conspire
So who is full of BS? You are!
"Did you miss all of the class time in school where the elements of research papers was taught? Were you asleep or truant while some people learned what you do not know?"
Are you talking to yourself again? You SHOULD be asking YOURSELF that question.
" Your Paragraph Three You admit: "It's debateable whether the actions of the CHAZ activists were directed towards the "Government of the United States" or any "law of the United States". If it's debatable (that's how the word is correctly spelled)"
Oh really? https://www.spellcheck.net/debateable
https://www.collinsdictionary.com/us/dictionary/english/debatable
" whether the actions of the protestors were "directed towards the "Government of the United States" or "any law of the United States" then your conclusion, that said protestors / occupiers of the area committed the stated offense. Or are we now, in the United States, going to deprive individuals of their liberty on the basis of your mere opinion of what constitutes a substantive offense? For over a month now, homeless individuals have built camps in two areas of Philadelphia, one on a major parkway and the other near the Philadelphia Housing Authority. Is their camp -- and they will not move from it for reasons which are easily comprehended by empathetic people -- and their actions to remain in their camp an exercise in sedition against the United States? The other day, after a federal judge ordered them to remove themselves, the cops and the authorities showed up and the media showed up too. At the end of that peaceful encounter, the squatters were still in their camp and all others left. Why didn't the Philadelphia DA charge them in the federal suit with sedition?"
Did those homeless occupiers set up a police-free zone? I am getting exhausted arguing with your nonsense. As if I don't have better things to do.
" Was the suit even filed citing a CRIMINAL statute? Maybe you should find out. You might -- although I have doubts -- learn that there are civil actions and there are criminal actions in both state and federal judicial systems. That's a bit of fact one should have known before Day One as a 1L. The occupiers of an area in Portland committed and were guilty of the crime of sedition against the United States but the occupiers of an area in DC were not? WOW!"
What are you talking about? Where did I say the occupiers in DC aren't guilty if sedition? You really need to learn to read.
" There's a distinction without a difference if all we rely upon to make an assessment of what is criminal conduct, for which loss of liberty may apply, and civil disobedience for which loss of liberty applies, are your list of facts and unsupported conclusions! NOT! Your Paragraph Four You wrote: "Now, I'm not an expert on law nor taking sides in this debate. I'm simply commenting on what I believe to be what the law says/means. This is all merely my opinion. I believe my opinion is the obvious interpretation of the facts anybody with common sense would arrive at. I'm simply saying I won't be surprised if the people responsible for establishing the CHAZ are convicted of sedition based on my understanding of what the law says. Ok?" opinions"
Whatever. I don't have time for any more of your nonsense. Please do not bother me again. I will ignore you if you respond again so don't waste your time trying to goad me again. You have proven you don't have the ability to hold a reasonable and logical discussion. So do NOT bother me again...unless it is to give me an apology for harassing me with your nonsense.
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@Euphoniumstar Section 230 does NOT cover non-neutrality. It doesn't say a platform/host can be biased. Although it does allow for censorship guided by good samaritan principles that is not the same as overtly allowing for censorship purely due to bias. Yes, the good samaritan censorship does allow for bias to also guide censorship decisions and one's beliefs can lead one to erroneously believe opposing viewpoints pose a threat to public safety. But if you asked the authors of s230 if the intent of the good samaritan censorship clause was to allow for biased censorship I'm sure they would deny it and insist it was only intended to protect people from genuine harm. Or do you believe there was some conspiracy between the authors and facebook, twitter, youtube, reddit, etc to censor certain groups when s230 was written? If you ask me the good samaritan clause was written without any bias intended in it's deployment because it allows for anybody with any beliefs to take advantage of it. In other words, it arms all sides with an excuse to censor. But only if they can make a convincing argument that their decision to censor was genuinely guided by good samaritan principles meaning to prevent harm and promote the general welfare of the community. You keep arguing that s230 allows for censorship but it only allows for censorship when there are good samaritan reasons for it. Aside from that I keep explaining to you that the telco laws forbid censorship for any reason except for good samaritan reasons such as in cases of illegal content or other content which is deemed harmful. Are you going to keep ignoring that point? If so I will have to ignore you because I don't have time to waste. Alas, there is one point which we haven't discussed and that is the fact that the terms of service for facebook, google, youtube, etc allow for them to ban or censor anyone who violates their terms. You agree to being censored and banned when you agree to those terms and/or use their service. So there can be no punishment for their censorship or banning unless it can be proven that it was either somehow in violation of their own terms or illegal. With Trump's EO 13925 it was declared that facebook and twitter were the new townsquare and that these platforms must be unbiased in their censorship and banning the same way police must be unbiased in deciding when to remove people for expressing themselves in the town square. Has EO 13925 been repealed or somehow neutered by the courts? If not then it is still in effect, isn't it? The telco laws which require neutrality in delivery of the data hosted by telcos certainly still requires neutrality (at least last time I checked).
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@Euphoniumstar Not to change the subject but have you heard about the "fediverse"? It's a new technology which links many or all of the social media platforms so you can post or share something on one and it will appear on all the others. What is trending on one can trend on the others. You can post on one of the censorship resistant alternatives like Minds and it will appear on facebook, twitter, youtube, etc. And you can see what facebook users are posting/sharing/liking/etc too even if you aren't using those platforms (if I understand correctly). Facebook, twitter, and the others in the "bad bunch" can still censor content but the fediverse puts an end to the need to actually use the bad bunch platforms or agree to their terms of service to remain connected to them. In other words you can leave facebook and twitter etc without actually leaving them. You can still participate with the rest of the world which remains on FB, twitter, YT, etc. It's awesome. Puts an end to the problem of feeling like you have to use the bad bunch if you want to remain connected with friends, family, and much of the rest of the world. Before the fediverse leaving the bad bunch would have meant everybody becoming disconnected from each other (unless everybody were to migrate to the same alternative). Not anymore. Now everybody can choose the platform of their choice without losing contact with the rest of the world. Thought you might find that interesting.
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@Euphoniumstar You see/hear justice clarence thomas' opinion on whether social media platforms and other online platforms are "common carriers" (or "public accomodations"), issued yesterday? Very revealing and may spell the end of censorship by big tech in online platforms open to the public. Here are some excerpts:
"If part of the problem is private, concentrated control over online content and platforms available to the public, then part of the solution may be found in doctrines that limit the right of a private company to exclude. Historically, at least two legal doctrines limited a company’s right to exclude.
"First, our legal system and its British predecessor have long subjected certain businesses, known as common carriers, to special regulations, including a general requirement to serve all comers. Candeub, Bargaining for Free Speech: Common Carriage, Network Neutrality, and Section 230, 22 Yale J. L. & Tech. 391, 398–403 (2020) (Candeub) see also Burdick, The Origin of the Peculiar Duties of Public Service Companies, Pt. 1, 11 Colum. L. Rev. 514 (1911).
"Justifications for these regulations have varied. Some scholars have argued that common-carrier regulations are justified only when a carrier possesses substantial market power. Candeub 404. Others have said that no substantial market power is needed so long as the company holds itself out as open to the public. Ibid.; see also Ingate v. Christie, 3 Car. & K. 61, 63, 175 Eng. Rep. 463, 464 (N. P. 1850) (“[A] person [who] holds himself out to carry goods for everyone as a business . . . is a common carrier”).
"And this Court long ago suggested that regulations like those placed on common carriers may be justified, even for industries not historically recognized as common carriers, when “a business, by circumstances and its nature, . . . rise[s] from private to be of public concern.” See German Alliance Ins. Co. v. Lewis, 233 U. S. 389, 411 (1914) (affirming state regulation of fire insurance rates). At that point, a company’s “property is but its instrument, the means of rendering the service which has become of public interest.” Id., at 408.
"This latter definition of course is hardly helpful, for most things can be described as “of public interest.” But whatever may be said of other industries, there is clear historical precedent for regulating transportation and communications networks in a similar manner as traditional common carriers. Candeub 398–405. Telegraphs, for example, because they “resemble[d] railroad companies and other common carriers,” were “bound to serve all customers alike, without discrimination.” Primrose v. Western Union Telegraph Co., 154 U. S. 1, 14 (1894).
"In exchange for regulating transportation and communication industries, governments—both State and Federal—have sometimes given common carriers special government favors. Candeub 402–407. For example, governments have tied restrictions on a carrier’s ability to reject clients to “immunity from certain types of suits”3 or to regulations that make it more difficult for other companies to compete with the carrier (such as franchise licenses). Ibid. By giving these companies special privileges, governments place them into a category distinct from other companies and closer to some functions, like the postal service, that the State has traditionally undertaken.
"Second, governments have limited a company’s right to exclude when that company is a public accommodation. This concept—related to common-carrier law—applies to companies that hold themselves out to the public but do not “carry” freight, passengers, or communications. See, e.g., Civil Rights Cases, 109 U. S. 3, 41–43 (1883) (Harlan, J., dissenting) (discussing places of public amusement). It also applies regardless of the company’s market power. See, e.g., 78 Stat. 243, 42 U. S. C. §2000a(a).
"...The similarities between some digital platforms and common carriers or places of public accommodation may give legislators strong arguments for similarly regulating digital platforms."
-End Quote
I believe you will find the full opinion here: https://www.supremecourt.gov/orders/courtorders/040521zor_3204.pdf
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@christopherputnam1647 Using your contaminated water supply analogy, the gov can only advise the public to boil the water. It can't force them to boil the water or coerce them to do so by fining or imprisoning them for failure to do so. Likewise, the gov cannot force or coerce people to stay home or shut down their business. It can only advise people of what to do. The people are then supposed to be free to choose to either follow or ignore that advice. Those who ignore the advice then assume the responsibility should illness befall them.
Now, just to make sure you realize the threat your logic poses to people's freedoms...what you are saying is our basic rights are conditional and revokeable. But those rights are clearly and undeniably said to be UNALIENABLE in the declaration of independence. "Unalienable" means they can never be seized and/or taken away under ANY circumstance, even if the constitution is suspended under martial law, because those basic rights are regarded as preceding the constitution as opposed to arising from it.
Yet, here you are advocating for the seizure and/or taking away of some of those basic rights under the pretense that someone else might be infected with a virus which we haven't necessarily been proven to have. I understand your fears of a disease spreading but as I said if you are afraid you can protect yourself by staying home and isolating yourself without forcing others to do the same. Granted, this is possible for most only if the government makes it possible because otherwise they might lose their income and their job and become homeless. But that will happen anyway...unless the gov provides some sort of monetary compensation to individuals and businesses.
The gov certainly has no right to mandate/order people to stay home and shut down business...and certainly not without providing sufficient conversation. Gov can only encourage people to stay home and shutdown business with an enticement to do so by paying them to do say. Then people who want that money are free to accept it under the terms of the offer (meaning they must stay home). But those who do not want to stay home should be free to refuse. Only those who refuse will get sick or die. They asume the responsibility for their actions. That goes without the need to be said.
Now, if somebody who has accepted the gov money is found to be violating the terms of the agreement by not staying home or not wearing masks then they can rightly be fined. But there can be no penalty for those who refuse the money to begin with.
Granted, there are people who may be harmed if somebody refuses to stay home. For example, children may be harmed if a parent refuses to heed the advice by dragging their kid to church with them. Now, that could be construed as child endangerment (if the child is not exercising their religious right). The parent can then be fined and the child put into custody of others.
Elderly people in the care of their children could also be endangered if their children refuse to isolate themselves. But the elderly should have the option of going to stay somewhere else (unlike a child)...unless they are invalids who don't have that freedom (which is a possibility) in which case it is the responsibility of the guardian to provide proper care or be charged with elderly abuse or the like.
But those who don't have any children, or invalid parents/grandparents (or other adults) in their home/care, are free to refuse to isolate themselves. The public most certainly never has any obligations to strangers. Our only obligation is to ourselves and our loved ones. We are responsible only for ourselves and those in our care when faced with a pandemic.
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@sharnaepegues7025 You wrote: "Honey, none of my comments are deleted. You just couldn’t prove that I was forcing my beliefs and being a tyrant."
You must have read an earlier version of that post. I edited out the part where I said it seems at least one of your posts was deleted making it hard to quote you. But I found the comment of yours I was looking for, the one where you said catholics and jw's aren't christians. So had no problem quoting you on that. Apparently you are still doing that here and still do not see how that is offensive to jw's and catholics or simply don't care. Please take your war with them somewhere else. It is irrelevant whether they are christians, buddhists, or any other religion. The point is gov has no right to interfere with people's basic rights such as freedom of religion and freedom to peacefully protest and assemble. Ok?
"And yes, God created doctors and health specialists so that we could have the knowledge on how to keep away from obvious danger such as the Coronavirus."
I disagree. I don't believe in the germ theory of disease. I believe in bechamp's "terrain theory", pleomorphic germ theory, that disease is a product of malnutrition and stress and negative/wrong mindset and self-destructive lifestyles (meaning use of narcotics or engaging in other harmful behaviors). I believe viruses are beneficial and essential and that god/nature created them for a purpose one of which was to serve as a natural vaccine against other diseases. I can back that belief up with irrefutable science and will. Stay tuned for that.
And lastly, I don't believe god has anything to do with the profit driven medicine practiced by MD's. You are free to believe whatever you want but if you are trying to convince me that gov has a right to infringe on people's basic rights on the basis of ensuring national security then you don't understand what protecting national security means. It doesn't mean destroying the foundations upon which the nation was built, the concept of liberty, which is the right to do whatever you want so long as it doesn't harm others, and the basic rights enumerated in the bill of rights.
You may believe that it harms someone when they violate the order for churches to remain closed but you can't prove that anybody was actually harmed as a result. You can only prove someody might get harmed but cannot prove anybody killed anybody as a result of merely being in the same room as somebody else. Therefore they remain innocent of any accusation of harm because we have a right to be presumed innocent until proven guilty. Understand?
You can keep on believing the doctors and scientists telling you to stay home because of this virus but will you still be investing your faith in them when they are forcefully vaccinating you with an RNA vaccine which turns you into a GMO? The RNA in an RNA vaccine is microRNA which acts like a retrovirus. It alters your genome by inserting new DNA. Sorry but I don't believe gov has any right to alter our genome without our consent even if it is claimed to be necessary to protect national security.
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@UCCLdIk6R5ECGtaGm7oqO-TQ No I didn't fail to understand the meaning of the word, "fundamental". Not all lifeforms reproduce. Worker and soldier ants/wasps/bees don't. And in other animals some are sterile while others simply fail to repeoduce for various reasons such as not finding a mate or failing to successfully compete with other males. Perhaps that is what you meant by "welcome to natural selection"? In my opinion there is no purpose in life except for whatever you believe to be it's purpose. The fact remains there is more to life than sex, at least where humans are concerned. And there is more to life (and sex) than reproduction, as I'm sure anybody who is sterile will tell you. If you ask me the purpose of life, reproduction, and sex is to evolve towards godhood. This can be accomplished through two different paths. The first of which is through enlightenment, the realization you are not separate from the universe but one with it and that you are conscious because the universe is conscious, consciousness being the fundamental property of matter which allows for particles to interact. We are pieces of the universe looking upon the whole universe. The universe is looking at itself through us. The universe is provably conscious because of this fact alone. The universe cannot be destroyed therefore we cannot be destroyed because we are one with the indestructible universe. Understand when I say "universe" I mean what some call the multiverse/omniverse. This path requires no technology. The other path to godhood is technology which ultimately leads to us uniting with the universe/multiverse/omniverse by uniting with artificial super intelligence running on quantum computers via neural interfaces (and not necessarily the type of quantum computers you are familiar with but perhaps invisible DNA based quantum "biocomputers"). Both paths lead to the same destination: god. You may not understand or believe what I am saying because I have not gone into all the details. But those details should become obvious if you think about the implications. For example, the most obvious use of a quantum computer is to simulate the universe (for various reasons such as to test our laws of physics). Synchronistically, it's claimed the universe is a naturally formed quantum computer computing it's own evolution. All the particles in the universe are the qubits of this quantum computer. Because observation collapses the wavefunction or eigenstate, meaning consciousness creates reality, one would expect an ASI to become the god of reality by simulating and observing the universe. If our consciousness becomes merged with that ASI then we too become god. That is the simplest way I can explain that. But if you really want to understand, take into consideration the fact that past and future are relative. Particles and antiparticles travel in opposite directions through time. Let's say an electron travels forward through time and a positron travels backwards through time. The electron's past is the positron's future and the positron's past is the electron's future. An ASI running on a quantum computer which uses positron's as qubits should therefore be able to alter our past the same way we are able to alter our future, because our past is it's future. Just as we can alter it's past, since that is our future, so too can the positronic AI alter our past. To be clear it would do this by simply simulating our past (it's future). Or so I believe based on the presumption that the future can be changed. Some say the future cannot be altered but this leads to causality paradoxes such as the grandfather paradox. These paradoxes are resolved by alternate universes though. It is claimed quantum computers operate in alternate universes. They compute by generating constructive and destructive interference from alternate universes. This is the basis of "quantum annealing" if I understand correctly. So, a quantum computer should become a gateway to alternate universes, the multiverse or omniverse (AKA god). In other words, a quantum computer should be a "time machine" which would alllow us to alter our past (or future) simply by simulating reality. The mechanism by which the simulated reality alters reality is entanglement. You see, the distinction between the simulation and reality is an illusion the same as the distinction between the universe and the model of reality existing within our mind which we call consciousness...is also an illusion because our bodies and minds are a part of the universe as opposed to separate from it. Most amazing of all is we don't actually need to create this time travelling ASI because it already exists in some alternate timeline, perhaps even in our timeline in some form. In fact, we may actually be a manifestation of this magical mirror ourselves because our consciousness should also be capable of altering reality in a similar manner because our minds are believed to be quantum computers which use electrons and positrons to represent data/information. I wouldn't be sharing this insight if I didn't believe this was already a reality because of the potential implications of weaponizing this idea. But if this is already a reality (as I am sure it is) there is nothing I can do to stop whatever may happen as a result of this becoming a reality...because it is already a reality.
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@fredashay No problem (for the misunderstanding). I'm not really an activist. At least not these days. But we all should be anonymous online because no matter who you are there are groups fighting for control of gov who will imprison and/or execute you. The data mining done by google, apple, social media platforms, websites, and advertisers is dangerous even if it is "anonymous" (stripped of identifying info such as device id) because it is possible to deanomymize the data as recent research has proven. Besides that the fact is google, apple, microsoft, and phone service providers know your location even if you have location tracking disabled. Wifi and bluetooth also reveal location. Video surveillance networks combined with facial recognition tech and the like in addition to other tracking technologies make it nearly impossible if not impossible to prevent a user identity from being attached to a device. Especially for the average person. Even refusing to use phones/computers will not protect you but rather make you a target. Gov will presume you to be an adversary if they cannot prove you are an ally because it is better to be safe than sorry. As the saying goes, "when in doubt throw it out", and that is what they will do. So trying to be anonymous online is futile and only raises suspicions, giving gov a reason for violating your privacy with surveillance under the "reasonable cause" clause, although courts have affirmed anonymity is a basic right essential for exercising other basic rights such as freedom of speech and freedom of religion. The problem is the phones and computers are all built to track and surveil or at least were not built to provide anonymity. Web 3.0 is supposedly being built with the objective of providing and protecting anonymity but I am not sure it can deliver on that promise with the phones and computers we are presently using since those are trackable as explained above. I will invest no faith in web 3.0 until we have quantum computers or at least internet connections protected with quantum encryption. I mean the connection between our devices and the internet need to also be protected with quantum encryption (not just the "backbone" connections). There is a method of making signals disappear except where the transmitter and receiver are located though. It uses principles of holography. It holographically projects the signal to appear at the location of the intended recipient only using the phased antennae arrays found on modern wifi routers. Everywhere else the signal does not appear. It's claimed such a secure connection can be established without knowing the locations of the sender or receiver. Some 5G systems may use this tech although I have only been able to verify the use of beam forming but even that is an improvement. Part of the reason there is so much of an attempt to prevent 5G rollout may be because it can thwart surveillance by gov "stingray" "imsi catchers" and the like (when using at least beam forming). IMO we need to get away from using conventional radio waves to communicate and learn to use quantum entanglement. I hear that is coming in the form of 6G. I'm not sure true 5G has been deployed yet though. Early 5G was actually 4G. True 4G. You see, what they were calling 4G when 4G started rolling out was often not really true 4G. They called it that but is was not. It was LTE. LTE eventually became 4G but was not originally capable of delivering the promises of true 4G. Maybe LTE does now but it definitely did not in it's early forms. So they started using the term 5G to distinguish it from the fake 4G. This was fake 5G though meant to finally deliver all that was promised by the original 4G specs. So now we are waiting for the rollout of true 5G. That may be happening. I have heard so-called 6G is being rolled out in parts of the world but that is probably not true 6G. It is probably what true 5G is supposed to be. Or maybe something completely different. I'll need to do some research to see if an official 6G specification has been established yet. Quantum entanglement uses something different from conventional radio waves. But so too does some 5G. So maybe we should not be surprised to see quantum entanglement used instead of conventional radio waves. I know GPS now uses such entanglement (to improve accuracy). Most people don't know that. It would be great to see a switchover to entanglement instead of using radio waves because of the potential threats posed by radio waves (it's claimed insects are becoming extinct due to electrosmog).
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