Comments by "" (@neutronalchemist3241) on "An Ancient Mosaic Calls Jesus God? Is This Real?" video.

Gospels had been written originally in Greek, that was the literary language of the Empire. There's no reason a 1st century Jew should consider Coptic as closer to him than Greek or even Latin.
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@MichailAgustusSolomonic Why are you limiting to "sermon or preach" all of a sudden? Early Christians wanted to spread their faith, that's why they wrote the gospels in the literary language of the Empire. And no, there were no problems in depicting a disgraced and long dead Roman as the killer of anyone. Philo of Alexandria, a Jew philosopher, heavily criticized Pilate way before the writing of the first Gospel, and so did Josephus.
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@Professional_Youtube_Commenter Did you read that page? In no part is states that someone in the council doubted of the divinity of Christ (there were doubts about his relation with the Father and the Holy spirit), or that it had been put to vote. Arians didn't deny the divinity of Christ (you can look at wikipedia article on the matter if you want) they only believed that he had been created, and so is eternal and outside time only from a certain moment on. You simply believed in the scam that was The Da Vinci's code.
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@williamjenkins4913 Trinitarians were the wast majority of Christians before the Nicene council. What Constantine cared about was to not have turmoils among Christians in his Empire. On the other hand, the divinity of Christ is already clearly stated by John 1 (end of 1st century), and it was hard to twist that into "Yeah, but he didn't really mean that".
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John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ.
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Already in the Didachè (first half of second century at the latest, but probably late first century) baptism was in name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, and John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ. At Nicaea the main theme was if the Son was of the same substance of the Father (vast majority of the bishops), or of similar substance of that of the Father (tiny minority), but divine indeed.
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@tadhgmccain7785 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."John 1:1 "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth." John 1:14 "For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known." John 1:17-18 So a God is a God or not?
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The divinity of Jesus is already clearly stated in John 1 (end of first century, early second at the latest), and already in the didache (same period) the baptism in in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.
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The divinity of Jesus is already clearly stated in John 1 (end of first century, early second at the latest), and already in the didache (same period) the baptism is in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit. in second century, a century before this inscription, there was already no real debate about the divinity of Christ (contrary to popular belief, not even Arians doubted about that).
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The vast majority of Christians were trinitarians before Nicaea. Already in the didachè baptism was in name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, and John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ. Constantine was only interested in ending the turmoils among Christians in his empire, and obviously, at Nicaea, the belief of the majority won.
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"In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God."John 1:1 "The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us. We have seen his glory, the glory of the one and only Son, who came from the Father, full of grace and truth." John 1:14 "For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known." John 1:17-18
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@tadhgmccain7785 If you are monotheist, if someone is "a God" then is God.
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The question was not even debated at the council of Nicaea. Even Arians believed in the divinity of Christ. The debate was about his relationship with the Father.
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Not islamists. It had been made up by Dan Brown in the Da vinci Code. One of many amenities in that book.
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Already in the Didachè (first half of second century at the latest, but probably late first century) baptism was in name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, and John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ. At Nicaea the main theme was if the Son was of the same substance of the Father (vast majority of the bishops), or of similar substance of that of the Father (tiny minority), but divine indeed.
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John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ.
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No, sorry. At Nicaea the divinity of Christ had never been "put to vote". It had not even been discussed. The vast majority of Christians were trinitarians before Nicaea. Already in the didachè baptism was in name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit, and John 1 (end of 1st century, early 2nd century at the latest) already clearly states the divinity of Christ. Constantine was only interested in ending the turmoils among Christians in his empire, and obviously, at Nicaea, the belief of the vast majority won. The main theme, at Nicaea, was to compose the differences between the main group of christians, that believed the Son to be of the same substance of the Father, and the Arians, that believed the Son to be of similar substance of that of the Father, but divine indeed.
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