Comments by "" (@jboss1073) on "I HAD to Make a Response to This..." video.

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  52.  @IrishColin  " The term Celtic was used by the Greeks to describe a culture that a bunch of tribes in southern Gaul (modern day France)." Herodotus said: "The Celts are the westernmost people of Europe, bordering the Cynetes". The Cynetes lived in southern Portugal. The Lusitanians were the bordering tribe. The Lusitanians have the highest density of tombstones with personal names using the name "Celt" and with tribes using the name "Celt". The Lusitanians have the highest density of personal pottery and votive altars referencing owners and dead people named "Celt". "These tribes spread that culture to Iberia and Ireland amongst others." This did not happen. See "Language trees with sampled ancestors support a hybrid model for the origin of Ind-European languages" by the Max Planck Institute from two weeks ago in order have that assertion of yours refuted. No, the Iberians have been speaking Celtic since the beginning, no southern French needed to go there to give them anything. "It doesn't matter what they called themselves, what matters is that they adopted the culture that was known as Celtic." This is "harmonious thinking" but not "logical thinking". The only definition of identity is self-ascription - what people call themselves. The only people in ancient times who called themselves Celts were the Lusitanians as can be seen by anyone searching "celt" in any online epigraphic database - they're free, try it yourself! And there's no such thing as "a culture known as Celtic", especially if the "known" part is only by people who are ignorant of the fact and being educated by uninformed Nordicist Victorian Romanticist scholars. "I can't self identify as a monkey and have it come true. " And yet your scholars have artificially called your language "Celtic" (when it is in fact Hibernian or Caledonian) to justify calling you Celtic (instead of the Spanish Celtici which even George Buchanan identified as the original Celts in 1582 when he coined the term "Celtic languages"). "Using his logic then the Mexican and Southern American people wouldn't be Spanish if they didn't call themselves Spanish but hat wouldn't be true. They have the language and the culture as well as shared lineage from intermixing of the populations so therefore they would be Spanish no matter what they called themselves." You are correct about my position here. No American is "Spanish" unless they are genetically of Iberian stock. Speaking "Spanish" doesn't make anyone "Spanish" just like speaking Romance is not making modern-day Romans out of anyone today. "A good example is you can be Columbian and Spanish at the same time, one is a cultural identity and one is an ethnic identity. The same goes for the Irish. Gaelic is heavily influenced by the Celtic culture." So long as you know that the Gaels are only CULTURALLY celtic (if there's such a thing) while the original, ethnic Celts are the Lusitanians who were the only people in ancient times who actually called themselves Celts by personal name and tribe - and to be CLEAR I am not saying their tribe names and personal names "were Celtic", I am saying their tribe names and personal names used the four-letters C-E-L-T in their names all the time.
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  69.  @minutemansam1214  "No Celtic people called themselves Celts. " Incorrect. Several Celtic tribes in Iberia called themselves "Celtici" natively. Also, Both Gallaecians and Lusitanians (yes, Lusitanians) called themselves "Celti", "Celtius", "Celtus", "Celtiati", etc in their own votive altars, tombstones and personal pottery. You clearly don't know what you are talking about. Here are some academic sources for you: Pliny the Elder saying that the Celts of Portugal called themselves Celts by surname: > "Mirobrigenses qui Celtici cognominantur" ("the Mirobrigenses, who are (sur)named Celtici" - Mirobriga is in Central Portugal) Source: Pliny the Elder. Natural History, Book IV, paragraph 118. Independent epigraphic confirmation: > "D(IS) M(ANIBUS) S(ACRUM) / C(AIUS) PORCIUS SEVE/RUS MIROBRIGEN(SIS) / CELT(ICUS) ANN(ORUM) LX / H(IC) S(ITUS) E(ST) S(IT) T(IBI) T(ERRA) L(EVIS)" Source: Inscription in the sanctuary of Mirobriga. Fernando de Almeida. Breve noticia sobre o santuario campestre romano de Mirobriga dos Celticos (Portugal). Evidence from ceramics inscriptions and graffiti > "The cognomen Celtus [natively attested in personal pottery, in the form of graffito or inscription on pots, pans, combs, etc] is known from the Hispanic provinces as well as from Gallia Narbonensis" Source: Zandstra, Marenne. Miles Aways From Home. Material culture as a guide to the composition and deployment of the Roman army in the Lower Rhine area during the 1st century AD, ISBN-13: 978-90-77744-00-0, p. 173 "Celt is derived from Greek and is the term the Greeks used to describe people from a specific region." This is actually not true, as I just showed you tribes in Iberia using the name "Celt" natively for themselves. I can also refute that with two academic quotes: > "It is sometimes suggested (Chapman 1992) that the ancients used the term "Celt" as a vague term for western barbarians, rather as the Byzantines, remembering their ancient history, referred to the western Crusaders as Keltoi, or as the British referred to the Germans as "the Hun" during World War I (Sims-Williams 2012a, 33). There is very little evidence for such a vague usage of "Celt". The locus classicus is Ephorus in the fourth century BC. In an astronomical context, Ephorus assigned the four points of the compass schematically to Indians, Ethiopians, Celts and Scythians. Since no Greek can have been unaware that Persians, Egyptians and others also inhabited the east and south, it follows that it cannot be assumed that Ephorus was only aware of Celts in the west. In fact, in another context, Ephorus did distinguish between Celts and Iberians. A century earlier, Herodotus had already contrasted the Cynetes (in Portugal) with the Celts, while Herodorus of Heraclea distinguished between the Kelkianoi (Keltianoi?) and five other Hispanic peoples, including the Cynetes. Other early Greek writers, including Timagetus, Timaeus and Apollonius of Rhodes, continued to refer to the Celts as a distinct people (see further Sims-Williams 2016; 2017a). Among the Romans, Varro (116-27 BC), for instance, named four peoples besides the Celtae who settled in Hispania (Pliny, Natural History 3.1.8). So "Celt" was not normally a vague term like our "oriental". Source: Sims-Williams, Patrick. An Alternative to 'Celtic from the East' and 'Celtic from the West', 2020. > "Despite their distance from the Celts, Hecataeus and Herodotus both distinguish them from their immediate neighbours (the Ligurians and Cynesians respectively), and are thus more useful to us than some later writers such as Ephorus (c. 400-330 BC), who used the term Keltoi in a generalized, schematic way, assigning the four points of the compass to Indians, Ethiopians, Celts, and Scythians.2 This shorthand should not be taken out of its astronomical context, as it is by modern scholars who deduce that the Keltoi were just the western, non-Greek "Other". Just as Ephorus can hardly have imagined that the east and south were solely occupied by Indians and Ethiopians (without Persians, Egyptians, etc.), so he cannot be assumed to have believed that only Celts inhabited his "Celtic" quadrant. In fact, in another context, he distinguished between Celts and Iberians, although getting their relative proportions wrong according to Josephus and Strabo. Other early Greek writers, including Timagetus, Timaeus, and Apollonius of Rhodes, also regard the Celts as a distinct people." Source: Sims-Williams, Patrick. The location of the Celts according to Hecataeus, Herodotus, and other Greek writers, 2016. So you are completely wrong: there were tribes who called themselves Celts - they lived in western Iberia - and Celt was not a Greek word but instead a native Celtic name for the western Iberia-located tribes. "It is now used to refer to anyone who speaks a Celtic language." No it is not, just like "Aryan" may no longer be used for anyone who speaks a language related to that of the Aryans. Irish people do not technically speak "Celtic" - they speak Hibernian. Scottish people don't technically speak Celtic - they speak Caledonian. Speaking a Celtic language has never made anyone a Celt anyways - the Ligures spoke Celtic yet were famously non-Celtic; the Veneti spoke Celtic even though everyone knew they were not Celts. The same goes for some Pannonians, Illyrians, Thracians, etc - they all spoke Celtic and they all were non-Celts. Only in the 19th century, after the Victorian Romanticism of the 17th century, were "cultural groups" defined such that languages started naming people. But before the 19th century, people named languages. Otherwise, the French are Romans because they speak a Romance language. For an academic refutation of this idea, please watch Celts and the End of Roman Britain - John Collis on the YouTube Channel "Royal Archaeological Institute" and skip to 4:30 timestamp so that you can hear a lesson from the researcher who defines Celtic Studies today, that speaking a Celtic language does not make anyone a Celt.
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  73.  @minutemansam1214  "Gaelic is a branch of Celtic. You cannot be Gaelic and not be Celtic. If you are Gaelic you are Celtic." Wrong. Gaelic is a tribal name. So is "Celtic". The Gaels never ever used the name "Celt" for themselves while alive. So they cannot be called "Celts". "And Celt comes from Greek, not Latin." Wrong: > "It is sometimes suggested (Chapman 1992) that the ancients used the term "Celt" as a vague term for western barbarians, rather as the Byzantines, remembering their ancient history, referred to the western Crusaders as Keltoi, or as the British referred to the Germans as "the Hun" during World War I (Sims-Williams 2012a, 33). There is very little evidence for such a vague usage of "Celt". The locus classicus is Ephorus in the fourth century BC. In an astronomical context, Ephorus assigned the four points of the compass schematically to Indians, Ethiopians, Celts and Scythians. Since no Greek can have been unaware that Persians, Egyptians and others also inhabited the east and south, it follows that it cannot be assumed that Ephorus was only aware of Celts in the west. In fact, in another context, Ephorus did distinguish between Celts and Iberians. A century earlier, Herodotus had already contrasted the Cynetes (in Portugal) with the Celts, while Herodorus of Heraclea distinguished between the Kelkianoi (Keltianoi?) and five other Hispanic peoples, including the Cynetes. Other early Greek writers, including Timagetus, Timaeus and Apollonius of Rhodes, continued to refer to the Celts as a distinct people (see further Sims-Williams 2016; 2017a). Among the Romans, Varro (116-27 BC), for instance, named four peoples besides the Celtae who settled in Hispania (Pliny, Natural History 3.1.8). So "Celt" was not normally a vague term like our "oriental". Source: Sims-Williams, Patrick. An Alternative to 'Celtic from the East' and 'Celtic from the West', 2020. > "Despite their distance from the Celts, Hecataeus and Herodotus both distinguish them from their immediate neighbours (the Ligurians and Cynesians respectively), and are thus more useful to us than some later writers such as Ephorus (c. 400-330 BC), who used the term Keltoi in a generalized, schematic way, assigning the four points of the compass to Indians, Ethiopians, Celts, and Scythians.2 This shorthand should not be taken out of its astronomical context, as it is by modern scholars who deduce that the Keltoi were just the western, non-Greek "Other". Just as Ephorus can hardly have imagined that the east and south were solely occupied by Indians and Ethiopians (without Persians, Egyptians, etc.), so he cannot be assumed to have believed that only Celts inhabited his "Celtic" quadrant. In fact, in another context, he distinguished between Celts and Iberians, although getting their relative proportions wrong according to Josephus and Strabo. Other early Greek writers, including Timagetus, Timaeus, and Apollonius of Rhodes, also regard the Celts as a distinct people." Source: Sims-Williams, Patrick. The location of the Celts according to Hecataeus, Herodotus, and other Greek writers, 2016. So "Celtic" is not a greek nor latin word but actually a native Celtic name for western Iberian tribes.
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  74.  @stgibbs86  "LOL but we dont call things today by what the romans called them, we use a new language, called english. You took that in high school, right? So yes, there are languages known as celtic. They are part of the celtic culture. Just as metatron said." Nice try now, saying "celtic" with a lowercase C so as to pretend it's "just a modern English word and not totally a tribal name". Listen, George Buchanan in 1582 introduced the word "Celt" to the English language as a word about people. Before that it was only used in poetry to talk about fields. And when George Buchanan did that, he said: "[...][George Buchanan] thus argued for an Iberian origin for the Irish and the Scots. To support this he noted the name of Brigantia (A Coruna) in Spain, and the Britgantes of south-eastern Ireland and of northern England mentioned by Ptolemy. He may, however, have also been influenced by the long medieval tradition for the links with the Iberian peninsula. As the inhabitants of Spain were called Celts, he [George Buchanan in 1582] suggested a Celtic origin for the Irish and Scots. For southern Britain he suggested colonisation from northern Gaul, especially by the Belgae." "In his Historia, Buchanan is the first author to suggest that the origin of some of the population of Ireland and the British Isles was Celtic. Only the Irish and Scots were strictly speaking Celtic, while the Britons and their successors, the Welsh, were Gallic or Belgic, and the Picts, though of Gallic origin and Gallic speaking, came from Germania." Source: The Celts: Origins, Myths and Inventions, p. 40. "For at first, the (a) Celtae, and the (b) Belgae did use a different Dialect, as Strabo thinks. Afterwards, when the Celtae sent abroad great Colonies into Spain, as the Names of the Celtiberi and Celtici do declare. And the Belgae made their descent into the Maritime parts of Britain, as may be collected from the Names of (c) Venta Belgarum, of the (d) Atrebates, and (e) Icceni" Source: George Buchanan, 1582, The History of Scotland. Hence, from the moment the name "Celt" entered the English language, it referred to the Celtici of Spain, who spanned all over western Iberia including Portugal. There is no need to change the meaning of "Celt" to please the Irish and Scottish - and in fact the meaning is not being changed, as the lecture "Celts and the End of Roman Britain" by John Collis here on YouTube explains - the Irish and Scottish were only wrongly called "Celts" and they will no longer be called Celts in academia starting now or rather when Celtosceptic Patrick Sims-Williams became the President of the International Congress for Celtic Studies.
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  115. @@tired-boy I am not conflating culture and DNA, you are, by saying "Iberians are Latin" when that is only their language - not even their "culture". "I've never heard a Portuguese claiming celtness instead of latinness, that you may have heard of Galicians, " That is you. Portuguese people who are educate know that their ancestors called themselves Celts in their tombstones and personal pottery, and that the Father of History, Herodotus, first located the Celts in Lusitania, "next to the westernmost people of Europe, the Cynetes". There is nothing "Latin" about any Iberian people. Their language is called Romance for a reason - and the Romans never called themselves "Latin" for that same reason - the reason being you don't use a TRIBAL, PEOPLE'S name as an adjective for language, culture, etc, because that waters down their name disrespectfully in the same way that calling razor blades "gillettes" waters down their brand name. "not beacause of a distinct celt culture, but because they have a peripheric nationalism that want to distance themselves from the rest of Spain." Oh, stop it. It is perfectly genuine to seek your own political independence when you are a separate people, and the Galicians and the Portuguese have been a Galaico-Lusitanian people for over 4,000 years now after the Bell Beakers started this. Both Portuguese and Galicians rightfully claim their Celticity based on what their ancestors called themselves as can be verified by anyone online searching for "celt" in a free epigraphic database of ancient tombstones - most tombstones containing the four letter name C-E-L-T are located in Lusitania quite definitely. "Nontheless it's been proven that a big chunk of modern day Iberians' DNA stem from celts" Their whole DNA is Celtic by definition as 2,000 years ago they had the same DNA and they called themselves Celts. What the mixture is doesn't matter - a people in the past had this same DNA and called themselves Celts with this DNA and they were the ancestors of the Iberians.
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  120.  @AnthropomorphicTrilobite  I'm not talking about "words" which are "improper nouns" but about names which are "proper nouns". A German is a German from the beginning of the Germanic people until today and it shouldn't change because "today is different than yesterday". So is the case with Celts - the Celts today are the same as the Celts who called themselves Celts in antiquity, namely the Portuguese, and outside of that everyone is practicing cultural appropriation by stealing their native tribal name and claiming it for themselves under the excuse that "the professors of my British country called my language Celtic therefore I am the Celts of the ancient times and Celt is just a word so I can totally just take it without caring about offending the actual descendants of the Celts who actually still exist today and actually still know they are descendants of the Celts and hence the only real Celts and are probably laughing at us right now for not calling ourselves Caledonians and Hibernians and being proud of our own name and ancestry and instead wanting to coast on the ancient prestige of the Celts just because they were talked about by the Greeks and Romans and neverminding that they were talking about the western Iberians and southern French when they mentioned the Celts, we Caledonians and Hibernians are just going to be the Celts now because it doesn't matter how ancient people used words". Congratulations, your point-of-view ends up destroying your own identity. Now that most Irish speak English, a Germanic language and not a Celtic language, I guess the Irish are no longer Celts but Germans, then, by your rule. So I will start calling Irish and Scottish people "Germans" no as per you and @IrishColin.
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  130.  @minutemansam1214  "the Irish are Celts by virtue of them speaking Celtic language." I've already refuted this on my previous message. The French are not Romans for speaking a Romance language, hence the Irish cannot be Celts for speaking a Celtic language. George Buchanan in 1582 only named Irish and Scottish as "Celtic languages" because according to him "the Celts came from Spain as their name Celtici there does show". Before 1707 the Celts were normally associated with the Spaniards and other southwestern European peoples by everyone, including George Buchanan who first suggested the Celtic languages to be related, although he originally called them Gallic languages: "[...][George Buchanan] thus argued for an Iberian origin for the Irish and the Scots. To support this he noted the name of Brigantia (A Coruna) in Spain, and the Britgantes of south-eastern Ireland and of northern England mentioned by Ptolemy. He may, however, have also been influenced by the long medieval tradition for the links with the Iberian peninsula. As the inhabitants of Spain were called Celts, he [George Buchanan in 1582] suggested a Celtic origin for the Irish and Scots. For southern Britain he suggested colonisation from northern Gaul, especially by the Belgae." "In his Historia, Buchanan is the first author to suggest that the origin of some of the population of Ireland and the British Isles was Celtic. Only the Irish and Scots were strictly speaking Celtic, while the Britons and their successors, the Welsh, were Gallic or Belgic, and the Picts, though of Gallic origin and Gallic speaking, came from Germania." Source: The Celts: Origins, Myths and Inventions, p. 40. "For at first, the (a) Celtae, and the (b) Belgae did use a different Dialect, as Strabo thinks. Afterwards, when the Celtae sent abroad great Colonies into Spain, as the Names of the Celtiberi and Celtici do declare. And the Belgae made their descent into the Maritime parts of Britain, as may be collected from the Names of (c) Venta Belgarum, of the (d) Atrebates, and (e) Icceni" Source: George Buchanan, 1582, The History of Scotland. "How people who don't exist anymore referred to themselves 2,000 years ago isn't relevant." But it's not true that the Celts "don't exist anymore and hence their name is up for grabs by foreign Brits", not at all.. In fact the descendants of the Celts - the people who actually called themselves Celts in western Iberia - still exist as the Portuguese and the Galicians. They are the only ones who can rightfully be called Celts and therefore you should stop trying to steal their name, legacy and cultural items. "In modern day English Celt refers to speakers of a language family, not a specific ethnicity." No language, not even "Modern day English", gets to define PROPER NOUNS. No langauge gets to define Names. You can define words, but not names. The name Celt is already taken by the ancestors of the Portuguese and the Galicians. Hence the Irish can only be known as Hibernians, Fenians, or whatever else they want, just not Celts, because that name is taken, and no language can steal a name and an identity from another people.
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