LancesArmorStriking
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Comments by "LancesArmorStriking" (@LancesArmorStriking) on "Russia's Lawsuit Against Ukraine Explained: Battle of the Former Soviets - TLDR News" video.
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@xway2
No, you're not understanding the point here.
The presumed terms of the agreement- the Budapest Memorandum- were that
1) Russia and Ukraine are separate countries that respect not only territorial sovereignty, but democracy in general.
2) That all issues arising from their common, un-democratic past have been resolved and both, diplomatically, are operating on blank slates.
Neither was true.
Crimea was un-democratically transferred to Ukraine by Soviet decree, it was never democratically rectified. Nor were they given a chance to self-determine under the new system.
So, when the right of Crimea to self-determine is denied (2014- no int'l recognition), on the grounds that they had already self-determined beforehand (1994), we have an issue.
Unless, the argument is "it belongs to Ukraine now, get over it", in which we would, as you mentioned, throw all precepts of democracy out the window.
I think 230+ years of political and cultural connection to a place, in spite of its undemocratic origin, is enough to warrant allowing the people to return to the country in question, if they wish.
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@michaeldunham3385
"They couldn't force Ukraine to relinquish Crimea"
No, that's not what I said. Negotiate.
Both parties, did, in fact, do that, but Russia's terms were certainly tempered given their recent economics and political collapse. That was also true of Ukraine, but one had simply lost more than the other.
I suppose that's true, but I don't do it to distract.
I bring up other examples because I want to judge acceptable precedence-- are we really willing to stick by principles which, if actually enforced, would bring enormous shifts to the global political order? Disadvantage some parties and enrich others?
In most cases I think not, because almost everyone has vested interests.
And working on a case-by-case basis generally brings better results.
If you were talking about other threads, you need to specify. I can't read your mind and can't address things unless you express them.
To the Basque and N. Ireland point, I have the same (above) reasoning.
As for Yeltsin, I wasn't lying, but I did miscommunicate. And that's my mistake, I'm sorry.
When I say "he wasn't elected", I'm referring to the fact that he had all the hard work (of name recognition, policy) done for him, as a former leader of the RSFSR.
I didn't mention that it was Yeltsin who advocated for the creation of the office of the Presidency, and the 1st election happened within the USSR. His candidacy was built on the fact that he was appointed by the Supreme Soviet of the Russian Federation.
So, while he legitimately campaigned, it's a lot like saying JFK got elected because of his hard work from the bottom-up.
And I made the distinction-- the Russian (but not Soviet) media certainly helped him along in the 1st election, though I wouldn't consider it rigged.
Clinton did, however, interfere in Yeltsin's 2nd election. He said, "I want this guy to win so bad."
He sent in political staffers from DC every week to boost his then-abysmal approval numbers. ~$16M in total spent on his campaign-- advisors, marketers, ads, posters, groundwork, etc.
So, in sum: 1st election, technically legitimate; 2nd, not. Got it?
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