Comments by "Edward McLaughlin" (@edwardmclaughlin7935) on "Knowledgia"
channel.
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As an aside to this whole question, I would add another.
Why, in the political/social sphere, do we constantly refer to the 'Anglo-Saxon' influence? The Saxons, as we all know, were totally divested of their powers, in and shortly after 1066. What superseded them, as far as hard power goes, was the Norman way of having things. Every thing that the English and then the British did to influence other parts of the world, was done not to any Saxon dictate, but to that of Normans.
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