Comments by "" (@jboss1073) on "Metatron" channel.

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  37.  @IrishColin  " The term Celtic was used by the Greeks to describe a culture that a bunch of tribes in southern Gaul (modern day France)." Herodotus said: "The Celts are the westernmost people of Europe, bordering the Cynetes". The Cynetes lived in southern Portugal. The Lusitanians were the bordering tribe. The Lusitanians have the highest density of tombstones with personal names using the name "Celt" and with tribes using the name "Celt". The Lusitanians have the highest density of personal pottery and votive altars referencing owners and dead people named "Celt". "These tribes spread that culture to Iberia and Ireland amongst others." This did not happen. See "Language trees with sampled ancestors support a hybrid model for the origin of Ind-European languages" by the Max Planck Institute from two weeks ago in order have that assertion of yours refuted. No, the Iberians have been speaking Celtic since the beginning, no southern French needed to go there to give them anything. "It doesn't matter what they called themselves, what matters is that they adopted the culture that was known as Celtic." This is "harmonious thinking" but not "logical thinking". The only definition of identity is self-ascription - what people call themselves. The only people in ancient times who called themselves Celts were the Lusitanians as can be seen by anyone searching "celt" in any online epigraphic database - they're free, try it yourself! And there's no such thing as "a culture known as Celtic", especially if the "known" part is only by people who are ignorant of the fact and being educated by uninformed Nordicist Victorian Romanticist scholars. "I can't self identify as a monkey and have it come true. " And yet your scholars have artificially called your language "Celtic" (when it is in fact Hibernian or Caledonian) to justify calling you Celtic (instead of the Spanish Celtici which even George Buchanan identified as the original Celts in 1582 when he coined the term "Celtic languages"). "Using his logic then the Mexican and Southern American people wouldn't be Spanish if they didn't call themselves Spanish but hat wouldn't be true. They have the language and the culture as well as shared lineage from intermixing of the populations so therefore they would be Spanish no matter what they called themselves." You are correct about my position here. No American is "Spanish" unless they are genetically of Iberian stock. Speaking "Spanish" doesn't make anyone "Spanish" just like speaking Romance is not making modern-day Romans out of anyone today. "A good example is you can be Columbian and Spanish at the same time, one is a cultural identity and one is an ethnic identity. The same goes for the Irish. Gaelic is heavily influenced by the Celtic culture." So long as you know that the Gaels are only CULTURALLY celtic (if there's such a thing) while the original, ethnic Celts are the Lusitanians who were the only people in ancient times who actually called themselves Celts by personal name and tribe - and to be CLEAR I am not saying their tribe names and personal names "were Celtic", I am saying their tribe names and personal names used the four-letters C-E-L-T in their names all the time.
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  45.  @RexNicolaus  "Celtic people are a large conglomerate of people but not a definitive identity, considering what little information we have about them." This is wrong - this is what I'm trying to communicate to you. Celtic people are not "a large conglomerate of people but not a definitive identity", on the contrary, they're a very definitive identity, seeing that they identified themselves from 200 BC to 200 AD in tombstones in western Iberia using the names "Celti", "Celtici", "Celtiati", "Celtius", etc. So they are a very definitive identity, you just so happen to not know about it. "That George Buchanan character and the statement you mentioned is not a definitive way of saying that’s what everyone believes about the Celts today. May have spread a myth? Maybe. But studies have been made well before his time, even dating back centuries prior." Actually there were no studies about Celts before his time, he was the first in modern times, and the point is he started calling these languages Celtic because he thought they came from the Celtici of Spain. Whether true or not, the point is, they were NAMED "Celtic" BECAUSE OF SPAIN, not because anyone ever thought any Britons were "Celts", because no one ever did. Do you understand the point now? "Gauls and Gaels are a Celtic sub group." No, they're not. This is some modernist agreement with no formality or academic support. Gauls in the past never called themselves Celts neither did Gaels. So no, they're not Celts. "Celts started to appear in the British Isles around 1000 BC" No they didn't, nothing in 1000 BC said "Celt" in the name and went to the British Isles. We may call those people "Celtic speakers" today but at the time of 1000 BC they did not call themselves Celts, hence they were not Celts. "With all that being said, I don’t know how you’re basing everything you understand off one film you mentioned and one 16th gentleman who made a statement about the Celts. Many studies you’re going up against. " I'm basing what I'm saying on tombstones. The only tombstones in all of Europe self-identifying as "Celts" are in western Iberia. Hence they're the only Celts because they are actually the only ones who called themselves Celts. What modern academics decide to call "Celts" is immaterial because those names are arbitrarily chosen. But "Celts" in the tombstones in western Iberia was not arbitrary, it was their native names. Watch the movie-documentary on Amazon I told you about and you'll learn it all. Did you watch it? Did you find it?
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