Comments by "On The Piss" (@On_The_Piss) on "TIKhistory"
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@coonhound_pharoah “there’s no such thing as collective will” - yet in your world, collectively decided laws are still to be enforced by police? What? Why?
Rather, in practical reality - beyond your ideology, the “free individual” does not exist, and it never has. Individuals have always been, and still are bound by laws, regulations, decided by a collective of some form or another. What use is there for a police force if not to enforce laws decided by a collective?
So, your argument that collective ownership is “hierarchical”, is a nonsense - since no individual is truly free in any practical reality, anywhere on earth. We are all bound by laws, relationships with our neighbours, etc.
Are you suggesting every individual has their own set of laws, and their own private police force to enforce them? Make it make practical sense. Because I’m struggling here.
Edit: whoops, I deleted my post to repost it with corrected spelling mistakes etc. Apologies.
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Shadowfanification No one understands the Nazis ideology, that’s the point. It makes no sense. It’s nonsense. You’re equating Hitler’s Nazi state with “the German people”, while ignoring whole swathes of it, just like the Hitler did. Just because Hitler didn’t consider these people to be German doesn’t mean they’re not German. You’re suggesting Nazi ideology was “socialist”, but only for aryans. This goes against even your own definition of socialism, yet you still ignore this glaring hole in the argument.
You, nor the Nazis, get to decide what “community” is or isn’t. Regardless, German industry was not owned and operated by “the community” at all, it was privatised. It was in the hands of a tiny subset of capitalists and politicians. This is so far away from what socialism is that it’s not even funny, your definition or the accepted definition. I think the fact you’ve failed to address any of this is interesting.
Ps. It’s r/askhistorians, not r/historians - one is considerably more reputable than the other.
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