Comments by "" (@elisabeth5285) on "Chris At Speakers Corner"
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@azamshah-w7m
No you don't understand the verse.
This commission in Matthew 28:18 to go and make disciples of the nations is grounded in a reality in a truth that Jesus has all authority over the nations, Matthew 28:18 to go and make disciples of the nations is grounded in a reality in a truth that Jesus has all authority over the nations, all authority over every life. So why do we go and make disciples? Why do we go and share the gospel, and lead people to be baptized, and identification with Him and teach them to obey everything he has commanded? Because he is Lord.
This is what drives us. This is the confession of faith that we see all throughout the Book of Acts. God has made this Jesus who was crucified both Lord and Christ. When you confess with your mouth that Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved. It all revolves around Jesus’s Lordship, and this is why we go. This is why we make disciples, because Jesus is Lord.
Philippians 2, 9 through 11, “One day, every knee is going to bow. Every tongue is going to confess that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God, the father.” Sometimes I hear people say, “I’ve decided to make Jesus Lord of my life.” The reality is though, you really didn’t have a choice in the matter. Jesus is Lord over your life. The question is not whether or not he is Lord. The question is, will you bow the knee to his Lordship now or will you bow the knee to his Lordship when it is too late?
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@azamshah-w7m The New Testament was originally written in Greek.
In order to identify the original language of the New Testament, it is important to understand the language situation in the first century AD. Before the exile of Judah in the early sixth century BC, Hebrew was the main spoken and written language in ancient Israel and Judah, and most of the Old Testament was originally written in Hebrew.
Under Persian imperial rule in the sixth through the early fourth centuries BC, Aramaic became the official language of government and most scribal education, and it gradually became the most common spoken language in the region. Hebrew and Aramaic are closely related languages of the so-called “Semitic” branch (of the Afroasiatic family), and they mixed and influenced each other to a large extent during this period. Some portions of the Old Testament were originally written in Aramaic, especially parts of Daniel and Ezra, as were some of the Dead Sea Scrolls and other early Jewish literature.
With the conquest of Alexander the Great in the late fourth century, Greek gained prominence as the common language of government, trade, and elite culture throughout the Eastern Mediterranean, including Judea and Galilee. By the third century BC at the latest, the Jewish expatriate community in Egypt had largely lost the ability to speak Hebrew and/or Aramaic, and so they translated the books of the Hebrew Bible into their then-native Greek. These translations—collectively called the “Septuagint”—became the main Scriptures used in the Jewish diaspora, the Jewish people living outside of the land of Israel. Many Jewish works from the diaspora, as well as some from Judea, were also written in Greek in this period.
Thus, by the time of the first century AD, the language situation in Palestine was very complicated and multilingual. Aramaic appears to have been the most common spoken language, especially among the working classes. Hebrew continued to be used for prayer and to compose religious texts, such as many of the Dead Sea Scrolls. And there is some evidence that Hebrew also continued to be used as a spoken language in some circles. Greek was widely spoken in the area as well, especially by Jews from higher socio-economic classes and those who had reason to interact with their Gentile neighbors. Thus, the language used for any spoken or written interaction depended on who was involved and the purpose of the conversation, and Greek allowed for the widest possible dissemination of written works throughout the Mediterranean world.
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@azamshah-w7m Beyond this general linguistic background, the manuscript evidence is a crucial part of addressing the question of what language the New Testament was written in. Here, the evidence is unequivocal: the New Testament is a corpus of Greek compositions. The Institute for New Testament Textual Research has documented over five thousand Greek manuscripts containing parts (or all) of the New Testament, ranging from the second century AD into the early modern era. This Greek tradition ultimately was and is the source for all known translations of the New Testament into other languages, ancient and modern. This includes ancient translations into Latin, Coptic, Syriac, Ethiopic, Armenian, and Georgian. It also includes, of course, modern translations into countless languages around the world.
In sharp contrast, there are no ancient Hebrew manuscripts of the New Testament whatsoever. Some late-antique Jewish polemical works do include Hebrew translations of parts of the New Testament, but the earliest extant Hebrew version of a complete New Testament book is the fourteenth-century version of Matthew included in a polemical work by the Jewish scholar Shem Tov. This Hebrew version likely pre-dated Shem Tov, but it has many elements from Latin and medieval vernacular languages that prove that it is a late translation ultimately derived from the known Greek Matthew, rather than reflecting an original Hebrew version of the book.1 (The books of the New Testament have also been translated into Hebrew on multiple occasions in modern times, but these are irrelevant for the question of the original language of the New Testament.)
The situation with Aramaic is more difficult, since there are ancient copies of the New Testament in different dialects of Aramaic. Even after the first century AD, Aramaic continued to be widely spoken in the Eastern Mediterranean, Mesopotamia, and surrounding areas in a wide variety of local dialects. These dialects cannot exactly be considered “Jesus’ mother tongue,” because they changed considerably over time and varied significantly from place to place. Given the growth of Christianity in the East, it is no surprise that both the Old and New Testaments were translated into these dialects and revised multiple times between the second and the seventh centuries. These versions are usually called the “Syriac,” which is one of the most widely used and well-documented dialects of Aramaic. Another noteworthy translation was made into the Christian Palestinian Aramaic dialect, which has more Palestinian influence than the other versions. While these Aramaic New Testament versions were made already in antiquity, the scholarly consensus is clear that they were translations, mostly from the Greek, into later Aramaic dialects. They were not original Aramaic versions of the New Testament books.2 The fact that even the earliest Syriac translators had to rely on Greek manuscripts is a good indication that Hebrew or Aramaic copies of the New Testament were unavailable already in the early centuries AD. The manuscript tradition thus strongly indicates a Greek origin for all of the books of the New Testament.
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@Servant-Of-Al-Qudus At this point in Jesus' ministry, there were people who wanted to kill Him in Judea. Jesus knew this and His brothers knew this, yet they still tried to get Him to come with them. John 7:1–4 records, "After this Jesus went about in Galilee. He would not go about in Judea, because the Jews were seeking to kill him. Now the Jews' Feast of Booths was at hand. So his brothers said to him, 'Leave here and go to Judea, that your disciples also may see the works you are doing. For no one works in secret if he seeks to be known openly. If you do these things, show yourself to the world.'" On the surface, Jesus' brothers sound supportive and like they want Him to be seen and known by others. The following verse, however, says that His brothers did not believe in Jesus as Lord (John 7:5), so in knowing this we can ascertain that their invitation was inherently sarcastic. Jesus could see right through their deception.
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@Servant-Of-Al-Qudus Mark 14: 60 61 62
60 καὶ ἀναστὰς ὁ ἀρχιερεὺς εἰς τὸ μέσον ἐπηρώτησε τὸν Ἰησοῦν, λέγων, Οὐκ ἀποκρίνῃ οὐδέν; τί οὗτοί σου καταμαρτυροῦσιν;
61 ὁ δὲ ἐσιώπα, καὶ οὐδὲν ἀπεκρίνατο. πάλιν ὁ ἀρχιερεὺς ἐπηρώτα αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ, Σὺ εἶ ὁ Χριστός, ὁ Υἱὸς τοῦ εὐλογητοῦ;
62 ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν, Ἐγώ εἰμι. καὶ ὄψεσθε τὸν Υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου καθήμενον ἐκ δεξιῶν τῆς δυνάμεως, καὶ ἐρχόμενον μετὰ τῶν νεφελῶν τοῦ οὐρανοῦ.
60 And the high priest, standing up in the midst, asked Jesus, saying, Answerest thou nothing? How these testify against you;
61 But He was silent, and answered nothing. Again the high priest asked him, and said unto him, Art thou the Christ, the Son of the blessed God?
62 And Jesus said, It is I. And ye shall see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of the power of God, and coming with the clouds of heaven.
Isaiah 44:6
οὕτως λέγει ὁ θεὸς ὁ βασιλεὺς τοῦ Ισραηλ ὁ ῥυσάμενος αὐτὸν θεὸς σαβαωθ ἐγὼ πρῶτος καὶ ἐγὼ μετὰ ταῦτα, πλὴν ἐμοῦ οὐκ ἔστιν θεός.
Thus says the LORD, the King and Redeemer of Israel, the LORD of Hosts: “I am the first and I am the last, and there is no God but Me.
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@JesusisaMuslim
ΚΑΤΑ ΙΩΑΝΝΗΝ 1
Ο Λόγος έγινε άνθρωπος
1 Απ’ όλα πριν υπήρχε ο Λόγος
κι ο Λόγος ήτανε με τον Θεό,
κι ήταν Θεός ο Λόγος.
2 Απ’ την αρχή ήταν αυτός με τον Θεό.
3 Τα πάντα δι’ αυτού δημιουργήθηκαν
κι απ’ όσα έγιναν
τίποτα χωρίς αυτόν δεν έγινε.
4 Αυτός ήτανε η ζωή,
και ήταν η ζωή αυτή το φως για τους ανθρώπους.
5 Το φως αυτό έλαμψε μέσα στου κόσμου το σκοτάδι,
μα το σκοτάδι δεν το δέχτηκε.
6 Ο Θεός έστειλε έναν άνθρωπο που τον έλεγαν Ιωάννη· 7αυτός ήρθε ως μάρτυρας για να κηρύξει ποιος είναι το φως, ώστε με τα λόγια του να πιστέψουν όλοι. 8Δεν ήταν ο ίδιος το φως, ήρθε όμως για να πει ποιος είναι το φως.
9 Ο Λόγος ήταν το αληθινό το φως,
που καθώς έρχεται στον κόσμο
φωτίζει κάθε άνθρωπο.
10 Μέσα στον κόσμο ήταν,
κι ο κόσμος δι’ αυτού δημιουργήθηκε,
μα δεν τον αναγνώρισε ο κόσμος.
11 Ήρθε στον τόπο το δικό του,
και οι δικοί του δεν τον δέχτηκαν.
12 Σ’ όσους όμως τον δέχτηκαν και πίστεψαν σ’ αυτόν,
έδωσε το δικαίωμα
να γίνουν παιδιά του Θεού.
13 Απ’ το Θεό γεννήθηκαν αυτοί και όχι από γυναίκας αίμα, ούτε από επιθυμία ανθρώπινη ή επιθυμία άντρα.
14 Ο Λόγος έγινε άνθρωπος
κι έστησε τη σκηνή του ανάμεσά μας
και είδαμε τη θεϊκή του δόξα,
τη δόξα που ο μοναχογιός την έχει απ’ τον Πατέρα,
ήρθε γεμάτος χάρη θεϊκή κι αλήθεια για μας.
15 Ο Ιωάννης είπε επίσημα τη γνώμη του γι’ αυτόν και τη διακήρυξε λέγοντας: «Γι’ αυτόν ήταν που είπα, “εκείνος που έρχεται ύστερα από μένα είναι ανώτερός μου, γιατί υπήρχε πριν από μένα”».
16 Απ’ το δικό του πλούτο
πήραμε όλοι εμείς
τη μια δωρεά πάνω στην άλλη.
17 Ο νόμος δόθηκε δια του Μωυσέως, η χάρη η θεϊκή όμως και η αλήθεια ήρθε σ’ εμάς δια του Ιησού Χριστού.
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@filterscape
It really amazes me how far you will go to prove that Jesus was not crucified.
Isaiah 53:5
It speaks of one known as the "suffering servant," who suffers because of the sins of others. Jesus is said to fulfill this prophecy through his death on the cross.
Muslims reject the crucifixion event, a denial rooted in the Quran.
The Quran was written in the seventh century, almost 600 years after the Crucifixion of Christ. The Gospels, in contrast, were written thirty-five to sixty-five years after the events they describe.
. Paul’s epistles were written even earlier. His First Letter to the Corinthians, written around AD 55, contains an early Christian creed that begins:
For I delivered to you as of first importance what I also received, that Christ died for our sins in accordance with the scriptures, that he was buried, that he was raised on the third day in accordance with the scriptures. (1 Cor. 15:3-7)
Scholars date this creed, which represents an early oral tradition of the Christian Church, to within six years after Christ’s death. Some have argued that it may have developed mere months after Christ’s death and resurrection. Although this creed does not explicitly mention crucifixion, earlier in the same epistle, Paul mentions “Christ crucified” on multiple occasions (1 Cor. 1:23, 2:2), confirming the sort of death Jesus died.
Early canonical and non-canonical Christian sources testify to Jesus’s Crucifixion, and we can also confirm that early non-Christian sources confirm our case. In the first century, Roman historian Tacitus and Jewish historian Josephus confirm more than just Christ’s Crucifixion: they note Pilate’s association with the execution.
Recent scholarship persuasively confirms that the four Gospels are based on eyewitness testimony. A leading scholar in this area, Richard Bauckham, concludes that the Gospels “embody the testimony of the eyewitness, not of course without editing and interpretation, but in a way that is substantially faithful to how the eyewitnesses themselves told it. He shows that the Gospel writers were “in more or less direct contact with eyewitnesses.
Bauckham further argues that St. John’s Gospel was not merely based on firsthand testimony, but written by an eyewitness to the Crucifixion. This is suggested in John’s epilogue, where the evangelist confirms, “This is the disciple who is bearing witness to these things, and who has written these things” (John 21:24).
No mainstream scholar today argues against Jesus’ historical existence. In fact, nearly all New Testament scholars today, many of whom are non-Christians and skeptics, consider not only Christ’s existence but his Crucifixion to be “historical bedrock.” Critic John Dominic Crossan writes that “Jesus’ death by crucifixion under Pontius Pilate is as sure as anything historical can ever be” (Jesus: A Revolutionary Biography). With similar conviction, atheist scholar Gerd Lüdemann concludes, “Jesus’ death as a consequence of crucifixion is indisputable” (The Resurrection of Christ).
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@filterscape
Who wrote the Qur’an?
Actually, muslims don’t even believe that Muhammad, once it had been revealed to him, wrote it down. He spoke it, preached it, recited it. And those around him, his followers, then memorised it (impossible) and some noted it down on anything to hand, like palm leaves and stones. So how did it become a book? According to Islamic tradition, not until after Muhammad had died (in AD 632), under the first caliph Abu Bakr, were these parts all gathered together and arranged into a book. The scribe Zaid was charged with the job of locating all the parts and compiling them into one volume. And around 20 years later, under the third caliph Uthman, the same scribe was charged with gathering all the variant versions that still existed, determining the correct one and burning the rest. You might think this haphazard process is not one which would have inspired confidence that the final product contained the authentic words, and only the authentic words, of Muhammad. But this is the official story, and Muslims seem happy enough with it.
There are all sorts of potential issues with the traditional Islamic account, which is derived from sources only compiled centuries after Muhammad. Perhaps the most significant, and worth leading with here, is that there is mounting evidence that the Qur’an, or at least the bulk of it, predates Muhammad. A number of manuscript fragments have been found which can be dated (by carbon dating of parchment) to well before the time Muhammad was active. It is also packed with agricultural and geographical references which are out of place in the arid Arabian Peninsula, and written in a dialect of Arabic which even early Muslim scholars agreed was not the dialect of Muhammad’s tribe in Mecca.
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@TheStr8Path
Children are not punished for the sins committed by their parents; neither are parents punished for the sins of their children. Each of us is responsible for our own sins. Ezekiel 18:20 tells us, “The soul who sins is the one who will die. The son will not share the guilt of the father, nor will the father share the guilt of the son.” This verse clearly shows that punishment for one’s sins is borne by that person.
There are verses that lead some to believe in intergenerational punishment for sin, or a generational curse. One of these verses is Exodus 20:5, “You shall not bow down to [idols] or worship them; for I, the LORD your God, am a jealous God, punishing the children for the sin of the fathers to the third and fourth generation of those who hate me.”
Keeping Exodus 20:5 in context, we notice right away that God is referring to the sin of idolatry. God considered idolatry to be an extremely treacherous betrayal of a sacred trust. Idolaters were traitors to God’s theocracy. Besides the abhorrent practices which accompanied idol worship in the Old Testament (see Deuteronomy 12:31), idolatry had a way of ingraining itself in a culture. Children raised in such an environment would keep the tradition going and practice similar idolatry, thus falling into the established pattern of disobedience. The effect of one disobedient generation was that wickedness would take root so deeply that it took several generations to reverse.
The implication of Exodus 20:5 is that children are akin to their parents. A new generation will tend to repeat the sins of their forebears. Therefore, God “punishing the children” is simply another way of saying that the children are repeating the fathers’ sins. The tendency to repeat the mistakes of history is especially strong in an idolatrous culture.
Another consideration is that the warning of Exodus 20:5 was part of the Mosaic Law governing Israel in the Old Testament. The generational curse should be seen as a collective punishment on the nation, not as a personal curse on individual families.
So, if a man robs a bank, will God punish that man’s son, even though the son had nothing to do with the robbery? Absolutely not. However, it is quite possible that the father who robbed the bank is making life more difficult for his son, through the natural consequences of his crime. Also, if the man is training his son in the techniques of bank robbing, then there is a good chance the son will follow the same path of dishonesty. In that case, the sin is copied by the son, and the punishment for the sin follows.
As Ezekiel 18:20 shows, each of us is responsible for our own sins, and we must bear the punishment for them. We cannot share our guilt with another, nor can another be held responsible for our transgressions. There is, however, one exception to this rule, and it applies to all mankind. One man bore the sins of others and paid the penalty for them so sinners could become completely righteous and pure in the sight of God. That man is Jesus Christ, who came into the world to exchange His perfection for our sin. “God made him who had no sin to be sin for us, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God” (2 Corinthians 5:21). Jesus was punished for us.
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@ishfaqshah7393
The Bible teaches that God spoke His inspired Scripture through divinely chosen men moved by the Holy Spirit (2 Peter 1:19–21)—that it is , or “God-breathed” (2 Timothy 3:16), true (John 17:17) and the basis for all doctrine (Matthew 4:4). The inspired canon of Scripture concludes with the sobering warning that the Bible is not to be added to or taken from (Revelation 22:18–19). It is not to be contradicted by some “further revelation” that would revise or supersede its commands.
Some Muslims contend that the Bible was originally trustworthy, but that it had become corrupted at some point. This is simply a false and easily disprovable claim. Many Bible manuscripts date back to hundreds of years before Muhammad’s time. Furthermore, these manuscripts were well known in Muhammad’s day, and many of those same manuscripts remain to modern times.
These many documents, in addition to the Dead Sea Scrolls, testify to the preservation and codification of Scripture well before Muhammad’s day. They also present Muslims with a dilemma. If the claimed corruption occurred before the time of Muhammad, then why does the Quran refer to the Bible as the word of God and insist it is to be followed (Surah 2:40–42, 75, 3:3, 71, 93, 98–99; 5:68; 6:91; 10:37, 94; 21:7; 29:45; 35:31; 46:11)? Why does the Quran instruct that Christians were to find the truth in the New Testament of Muhammad’s day (Surah 10:94)? Additionally, if the New Testament is the word of God (as proclaimed in Surah 5:46, 67, 71), and if Jesus was a prophet of God (as Surah 4:171 and elsewhere assert), then Jesus’ words in the Bible should be believed and obeyed. The Quran itself points to the legitimacy of the Bible that God gave to Israel (Surah 2:40–42)! Furthermore, the Quran teaches that the word of God cannot be changed, and that it must be believed and obeyed (Surah 2:136; 4:136; 6:34; 10:34; 29:46).
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@alonzoharris9049
From a Islamic site:
Some Muslims believe that Music is prohibited/sinful in Islam. According to Islam: Music that leads to sinful acts such as drugs, sex, violence, etc... is absolutely sinful in Islam. But otherwise, how would it be sinful when Allah Almighty Himself allowed it to Prophet David peace be upon him?
Narrated Abu Musa: "That the Prophet said to him 'O Abu Musa! You have been given one of the musical wind-instruments of the family of David.' (Translation of Sahih Bukhari, Virtues of the Qur'an, Volume 6, Book 61, Number 568)"
Let us look at Noble Verse 4:163 "We have sent thee inspiration, as We sent it to Noah and the Messengers after him: we sent inspiration to Abraham, Isma'il, Isaac, Jacob and the Tribes, to Jesus, Job, Jonah, Aaron, and Solomon, and to David We gave the Psalms."
Let us look at Noble Verse 17:55 "And it is your Lord that knoweth best all beings that are in the heavens and on earth: We did bestow on some prophets more (and other) gifts than on others: and We gave to David (the gift of) the Psalms."
In the above Saying (Hadith) and Noble Verses, we clearly see that Allah Almighty did send the Book of Psalm to Prophet David peace be upon him. We also see that Allah Almighty called that Book a gift. If Allah Almighty allowed David peace be upon him and his followers to sing and play music, then how could we then claim that music is sinful and prohibited?
There is not a single Noble Verse in the Noble Quran that prohibits music. In fact, music and songs are allowed in the Noble Quran as we saw above. Some Muslims however claim that Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him did prohibit music. Well, the section below actually proves the otherwise from the Sayings of Prophet Muhammad himself.
Muslims must also remember that when Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him reached the Holy City of Madina from the Holy City of Mecca with his best friend Abu Bakr; may Allah Almighty always be pleased with him, the Muslims played music and sang the famous Islamic song "Talaa El-Badru Alayna" which means "The full moon had come upon us."
The "music prohibition" is a fiction, that finds scant support even in the various ahadith collections.
If the Salafys want to abstain from music, they are free to do so. But don't tell the rest of Islam that the "music prohibition" is THE WORD OF ALLAH! It Isn't!
Music is not prohibited in Islam. Allah Almighty in the Noble Quran allowed music and inspired it upon David peace be upon him. Prophet Muhammad peace be upon him didn't prohibit music unless it was used for sinful activities. Otherwise, music is allowed. It's been proven by science that music relaxes the mind and helps the person to gain energy and refresh himself. Most production plants in the industrial countries allow their workers to play music while working to helping them gain more energy.
Allah Almighty created music so we can use it in a positive and Islamic way to help us ease some of the burden of life from us. Even animals enjoy good music. In the Middle East, some people have their horses dance beautiful dances on music in many of the rural areas while they're celebrating.
You see many Muslims who have not bothered to ACTUALLY READ THE QURAN and HADITHS classify most music as "haram"!
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@redx11x I can say the same about Quran 57 3. Whoever says that refers to Allah. Anyway, explanation about Isaiah.
I am the First and I am the Last; besides Me there is no God: The LORD has already taken this unique title in Isaiah 41:4, in the same context of proclaiming His glory against the feeble false gods. An idol can never be the First, because an idol needs someone to make him. An idol can never be the Last because they wear out and break. But the Lord GOD of Israel is both the First and the Last; He is completely unique, and besides Him there is no God.
As first he does not derive his being from any other, but is self-existing; as last he remains supreme at the End.
Jesus takes the same title of the First and the Last in Revelation 1:17 and 22:13. If the LORD is the First and the Last according to Isaiah 44:6, and if Jesus is the First and the Last according to Revelation 1:17 and 22:13, since there cannot be two firsts or two lasts, Jesus is the LORD God.
In this passage Isaiah describes how people make their own god’s. This exposure of idolatry is the most powerful in the Bible. How absurd to make a god from the same tree that gives firewood. It shows how those who make idols are just like them: blind and ignorant and nothing.
The graven image is called vanity which means nothingness (v. 9). The worthless things refer to the extreme adornment of idols with gold, silver and precious stone. Isaiah also suggests that the workmen, as well as the worshipers, are very foolish and should be ashamed (vv. 10-11). God made people in His own image and now they are making gods in their image. These helpless idols leave people without help or hope. The fact that craftsmen are nothing but men epitomizes the foolishness of idol-worship (vv. 12-13). It is utter foolishness when part of the tree becomes a god, and the rest of the tree becomes fuel for the fire (vv. 14-17).
Those who worship idols are stupid and blind (vv. 18-19). When a man cuts down the trees of the forrest and takes part of them to build a fire to warm himself and takes another part to make a god is overwhelming and illogical stupidity to Isaiah. He says that to worship wood is to fed on ashes and trusting in something that is totally worthless (v. 20).
The utter stupidity of idolatry and a pagan religion is exposed here to the most scathing attack in the entire Bible. The fact that a person would worship this so-called god is bad enough but that he prayeth unto it and expects it to deliver him is even more ridiculous. Do we make our own gods today of money, fame or power. If so, we only deceive ourselves and can not expect to be blessed.
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@Nixo77
Let's take a closer look at some of Muhammad's many notable statements and claims, and see what this says about his claim to be a prophet.
Fever is caused by the heat of hell. According to Muhammad, the heat of hell is the cause of fever, and must therefore be treated with water (Saheeh al-Bukhari 7:71:621).
Seasons are determined by hell. According to Mohammed, the seasons and the associated differences in temperature are caused by hell. Hell has a hot and a cold part. One day, Hell notices that both parts are consuming each other, and asks Allah for help (Saheeh al-Bukhari 4:54:482). Allah then helps Hell by allowing the cold part to be active ('breathing') in the winter and the hot part in the summer.
This is the reason why we have seasons on earth, and according to Islam this has nothing to do with the position of the earth in relation to the sun, as we learned at school.
Embryos develop in phases of 40 days. According to the Quran (Sura 22:5), embryos go through the following phases: sperm/sperm, then coagulated blood, and finally a lump of flesh. Each of these phases lasts 40 days according to Muhammad (Saheeh al-Bukhari 4:54:430). After these 120 days have passed, a fetus has been formed. An important detail is that during the final phase an angel comes who determines the gender on behalf of Allah (Saheeh al-Bukhari 8:77:594).
In reality, the development of an embryo is very different. An embryo is already a fetus after 9 weeks, so after 63 days instead of 120. After 56 days, all organs have already been developed and there is already a recognizable human being. According to the Quran, the embryo is still in the second phase as clotted blood.
Moreover, the sex of the baby is determined immediately at conception, and not after 80 days as Islam claims. So it is clear that modern science is anything but supportive of Islam.
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@JesusisaMuslim
Many people referred to Jesus during His life on earth as a prophet, including the woman caught in adultery (John 4:19) and others (Matthew 21:11; Luke 7:16).
Once, at least, Jesus compared Himself to a prophet: "And Jesus said to them, 'A prophet is not without honor, except in his hometown and among his relatives and in his own household.' And he could do no mighty work there, except that he laid his hands on a few sick people and healed them. And he marveled because of their unbelief …" (Mark 6:4–6).
Prophets also, by the power of God, tell the future. Jesus did this, telling His disciples He would be killed and then rise from the dead on the third day (Matthew 16:21). This prophecy was fulfilled. He said He would send the Holy Spirit (Acts 1:8), which we see happen in Acts 2. Jesus also gave prophecies about the destruction of the temple in Jerusalem, His return, and other end-times events (Matthew 24).
Prophets also performed miracles. Moses did many miracles, including parting the Red Sea (Exodus 14:21–22). Elijah called fire from heaven—a great account from 1 Kings 18:26–38. And, of course, Jesus performed miracle after miracle. Read the Gospels. Here's a few references: Matthew 8:14–17; Mark 1:40–45; Luke 8:42–48; and John 6:16–21.
Many people today identify Jesus as a prophet, and He did fill the role of a prophet. But unfortunately many people confine Him to that role, such as Muslims who esteem Jesus as a great prophet but not as God or the only Savior. Jesus is so much more than a prophet. He is God (John 10:30; Philippians 2:5–11; Colossians 1:15–20). He is the Messiah (Jesus fulfilled scores of Old Testament prophesies about the Messiah). He is the propitiation for our sin (Hebrews 2:17). Jesus is a prophet and fulfilled the prophecy of Deuteronomy 18:18 (see Acts 3:22; 7:37). But He is more than just a prophet. He is the Word of God (John 1:1) and the only one who saves (John 14:6; Acts 4:12).
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